Question: 401
HOTSPOT
A customer built a computer for gaming, sourcing individual components and then assembling the system. The OS starts up, but within a few minutes the machine locks up. The customer brought the computer to a technician to diagnose the issue.
Answer:
Explanation: correct answer is “Overclocking” and “Reduce CPU Clock speed” CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2 Ghz. Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer so the user probably took it too far.
Question: 402
DRAG DROP
A customer recently experienced a power outage at a SOHO. The customer does not think the components are connected properly. A print job continued running for several minutes after the power failed, but the customer was not able to interact with the computer.
Once the UPS stopped beeping, all functioning devices also turned off. In case of a future power failure, the customer wants to have the most time available to save cloud documents and shut down the computer without losing any data.
INSTRUCTIONS
Based on the customer’s requirements, connect the customer’s devices to the proper outlets. Select the power source for the Surge Protector and UPS. This may require reselecting dropdowns or removing tokens.
Each token may only be used once. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Wall Outlet (empty — nothing goes directly to the wall)
Surge Protector (Power Source: Wall Outlet)
Printer
Scanner
UPS (Power Source: Surge Protector)
Computer
Monitor
Cable Modem
Wi-Fi Router
Question: 403
HOTSPOT
User at site A is reporting dropped VolP calls when using a softphone application.
However, users at site B are not experiencing any issues. The VolP provider has a tool to troubleshoot connectivity Issues.
Click on each tab to investigate the cause of the dropped calls. In Part 1, type help in each terminal to view a list of available commands. Then, select the correct answer for each question. In Part 2, make unnecessary network configuration changes to resolve reported issue.
Answer:
Explanation:
Packet loss
Plug an Ethernet cable into the workstation
Question: 404: PRINTER QUESTION
DRAG DROP
An office manager reports that a printer is experiencing performance issues. Printouts are smudging when they are handled, and, recently, whenever the manager tries to print oversized documents, the paper jams before anything is printed on it.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the available printer parts, replace only the faulty components on the office printer to resolve the stated issues.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Question: 405
An end user is printing, but the image is being cut off because the paper is too small. The user did put the correct type of paper in the printer. Which of the following should the user change first?
- The image size
- The quality of the image
- The tray settings
- The file type
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a printout is being cut off, CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) troubleshooting emphasizes checking the simplest, most likely configuration mismatch first—the printer’s paper size/source settings. Even if the user physically loaded the correct paper, the print job can still be formatted incorrectly if the printer driver, application, or printer itself is set to use a different paper size or a different tray. If the printer thinks it is using a smaller paper size (or a tray configured for smaller paper), it may clip the printable area and truncate the image at the edges.
Changing tray settings (paper size and paper source) aligns the printer’s configuration with the actual media installed, which is a standard first-step for issues related to formatting, clipping, and page boundaries. Image quality (DPI) affects sharpness, not cropping. File type rarely causes consistent edge cutoff compared with page setup mismatches. Adjusting image size could work as a workaround, but CompTIA best practice is to correct the paper/tray and page setup settings first so all prints format properly without editing the document each time.
Question: 406
A company requires a storage solution that combines performance and redundancy for a main database server with high levels of read/write operations. Which of the following storage configurations best meets these requirements?
- RAID 0
- RAID 5
- RAID 6
- RAID 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
For a main database server with high read/write activity, the best RAID choice must deliver strong performance while still providing fault tolerance. Per CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) storage/RAID objectives, RAID 10 (1+0) combines disk mirroring (RAID 1) and disk striping (RAID 0). Striping improves performance by distributing read/write operations across multiple disks, which is ideal for databases that perform frequent transactions. Mirroring provides redundancy by keeping an identical copy of data on a paired drive, allowing the system to tolerate drive failures (typically one drive per mirrored pair) without data loss.
RAID 0 is fast but offers no redundancy, making it inappropriate for critical servers. RAID 5 and RAID 6 use parity, which provides redundancy but introduces a write penalty because parity must be calculated and written during updates—often a poor fit for workloads with heavy random writes like databases. RAID 6 is even more write-intensive
Question: 407
A technician is building a custom CAD workstation with a high-end graphics card. The customer requests that the system has the highest possible stability. Which of the following is the best choice for the power supply?
- UPS
- Redundant
- Surge protector
- Modular
Answer: B
Explanation:
For the highest possible stability, the best power-supply choice is a redundant power supply. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware concepts, redundant PSUs are used in systems where uptime and reliability are critical. A redundant PSU configuration typically includes two power supply units operating together (often in a hot-swappable bay). If one PSU fails, the other continues supplying power, allowing the workstation to remain operational and preventing unexpected shutdowns that could interrupt CAD work or corrupt data. This directly matches the requirement for maximum stability.
A UPS improves resilience to power loss and brownouts by providing battery backup and line conditioning, but it is not a power supply type and doesn’t protect against the PSU itself failing. A surge protector helps guard against voltage spikes, but it also does not ensure system operation if the PSU fails. A modular PSU mainly improves cable management and airflow by allowing detachable cables; it can be convenient and neat, but it does not inherently increase stability compared with redundancy. Therefore, the most stability-focused PSU option is Redundant.
Question: 408
A user’s computer is connected to a docking station at their desk. The user cannot access the department file servers even though the docking station has a hardwired connection. Which of the following steps should a technician take to restore the user’s access?
- Update the docking station firmware.
- Restart the computer.
- Disable Wi-Fi.
- Replace the Ethernet cable.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking and troubleshooting, a common cause of “can’t reach internal resources” while docked is that the laptop is still using the wireless interface (or has a higher interface priority for Wi-Fi) instead of the docking station’s wired Ethernet connection. If the Wi-Fi network is a guest/isolated VLAN, uses different routing, or has stricter access controls, the user may be blocked from reaching department file servers even though an Ethernet cable is physically connected to the dock. Disabling Wi-Fi is a fast, low-risk step that forces the system to use the wired NIC path through the docking station, which typically provides the correct corporate network access, DHCP scope, and routing to internal servers.
Restarting the computer might help in some cases, but it’s less targeted and not the “best next step” when the likely issue is interface selection. Replacing the Ethernet cable is appropriate if link lights are off or the wired connection is clearly down, but the scenario highlights that the dock has a hardwired connection—suggesting the physical layer may be fine. Dock firmware updates are not a first-line fix for basic connectivity/access symptoms.
Question: 409
A company’s directory services server is located on premises. Which of the following best describes the directory services infrastructure?
- Hybrid cloud
- Private cloud
- Public cloud
- Community cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam objectives, cloud deployment models describe how and where computing resources are hosted and who has access to them. A private cloud is defined as a cloud environment that is dedicated to a single organization and may be hosted on-premises within the company’s own data center or in a dedicated external facility. Since the question states that the directory services server is located on premises, it indicates that the organization is hosting and managing its own infrastructure internally. This aligns directly with the definition of a private cloud deployment model.
Directory services—such as Microsoft Active Directory or LDAP-based services—are commonly deployed internally to manage user authentication, authorization, group policies, and resource access within an organization. When these services run on company-owned hardware inside the organization’s network, the infrastructure remains under the organization’s full administrative control, security policies, and management.
The other options do not match this scenario. A public cloud is hosted by third-party providers and shared among multiple customers. A hybrid cloud combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud services. A community cloud is shared by multiple organizations with similar requirements. Because the system is hosted internally for a single organization, the correct classification is Private Cloud .
Question: 410
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Type 1 hypervisor?
- Host OS required
- Bare-metal server installation
- Lightweight OS
- Local configuration options
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization objectives, a Type 1 hypervisor is known as a bare-metal hypervisor because it installs directly onto the physical hardware of a system rather than running on top of a traditional operating system. This architecture allows the hypervisor to manage hardware resources—such as CPU, memory, storage, and networking—without the overhead of a host operating system. Because of this direct interaction with the hardware, Type 1 hypervisors typically provide higher performance, better scalability, and improved stability compared to Type 2 hypervisors.
Examples of Type 1 hypervisors include VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V (bare-metal deployment),and Citrix XenServer. These hypervisors are commonly used in enterprise data centers, cloud infrastructure, and large virtualization environments where multiple virtual machines must run efficiently on a single physical server.
Option A (Host OS required) describes a Type 2 hypervisor, such as VMware Workstation or Oracle VirtualBox, which runs on top of an existing operating system. Option C (Lightweight OS) may describe some hypervisor environments but is not the defining characteristic. Option D (Local configuration options) is also not specific to Type 1 hypervisors.
Therefore, the key characteristic that defines a Type 1 hypervisor is that it performs a bare-metal server installation directly on the hardware
Question: 411
A help desk technician investigates a laser printer issue. Smudges are appearing on the printed pages, but they are not present on the document that was sent to the printer. Which of the following should the technician do first to diagnose the issue?
- Use a different kind of printing paper.
- Inspect the printer drum.
- Update the printer firmware.
- Replace the toner.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Because the smudges are not in the original document, CompTIA A+ troubleshooting logic indicates the problem is occurring inside the print process, not in the application or file. For laser printers, smudging commonly points to an issue with the imaging components—especially the drum/photoconductor unit (and sometimes the fuser). A+ Core 1 (220-1201) printer troubleshooting emphasizes starting with the most likely, easiest-to-verify causes before replacing parts. Inspecting the drum is a diagnostic step that can reveal visible defects such as scratches, toner buildup, contamination, or worn surfaces that cause toner to transfer incorrectly, leading to streaks or smears on output.
Replacing the toner (D) is a corrective action and may be unnecessary if the drum is damaged. Changing paper type (A) can help with some issues (like poor fusing or humidity-related problems), but it’s less directly tied to consistent smudges caused by the imaging process. Firmware updates (C) Are rarely the first step for print-quality defects; they’re more relevant to compatibility, bugs, or feature issues—not physical smearing. Therefore, inspecting the printer drum first best matches A+ methodology and common laser printer failure points.
Question: 412
A company’s directory services server is located on premises. Which of the following best describes the directory services infrastructure?
- Hybrid cloud
- Private cloud
- Public cloud
- Community cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) cloud concepts, the key differentiator between cloud deployment models is where the service is hosted and who owns/uses the underlying infrastructure. If a company’s directory services server (for example, a domain controller providing authentication/authorization and centralized identity management) is located on premises, that points to infrastructure that is owned and operated by the organization for its own internal use. This aligns best with a private cloud model, which is defined as cloud resources dedicated to a single organization and can be implemented on-premises (internally hosted) or in a dedicated off-site environment.
It is not a public cloud because public cloud services are hosted by a third-party provider and shared across multiple customers. It is not hybrid cloud because hybrid requires a mix of on-prem resources and public cloud resources working together (the question only specifies on-prem). It is not community cloud because that involves shared infrastructure among multiple organizations with common needs.
Question: 413
Which of the following display technologies is known for offering the highest contrast ratios?
- LCD
- LED
- OLED
- QLED
Answer: C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) display technology objectives emphasize that contrast ratio is strongly influenced by how well a screen can produce true black. OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode) panels are known for the highest contrast ratios because each pixel is self-emissive—meaning it generates its own light. When an image requires black, OLED can turn individual pixels completely off, producing near-perfect black levels and extremely high (often “infinite”) contrast in practical terms.
By comparison, LCD panels require a backlight, so black areas still allow some light leakage through the liquid crystal layer, reducing contrast. LED in this context is typically an LED-backlit LCD, not a fundamentally different pixel technology; it improves brightness and efficiency but still relies on backlighting, so contrast is limited by backlight bleed and panel design. QLED is also a type of LCD technology that uses a quantum dot layer to enhance color and brightness, but it still uses a backlight, so it cannot match OLED’s per-pixel shutoff for black levels. Therefore, OLED is the best choice for the highest contrast ratios.
Question: 414
A company is separating its accounting department’s network from its customer service department’s network. Which of the following will accomplish this task?
- VPN
- DNS
- VLAN
- DHCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is the correct solution because it logically separates devices into different broadcast domains on the same physical switching infrastructure. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201), VLANs are described as a way to segment a network for security, performance, and management—for example, isolating departments like Accounting and Customer Service so their traffic is separated. Devices assigned to different VLANs cannot communicate directly at Layer 2; communication between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device (such as a router or a Layer 3 switch) using inter-VLAN routing and appropriate access control. This effectively prevents unnecessary broadcast traffic from crossing department boundaries and helps enforce separation policies.
A VPN is used to create an encrypted tunnel over an untrusted network (commonly for remote access or site-to-site connectivity), not for internal departmental segmentation. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses and does not isolate networks. DHCP automatically assigns IP configuration (IP address, gateway, DNS servers), but it does not provide segmentation by itself.
Therefore, implementing VLANs is the best way to separate the two departments’ networks.
Question: 415
Which of the following devices forwards data between different networks by analyzing the headers of packets?
- Hub
- Router
- Repeater
- Unmanaged switch
Answer: B
Explanation:
A router is a network device that forwards data between different networks by examining packet headers, specifically the IP address information contained in Layer 3 (Network Layer) of the OSI model. According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, routers use routing tables and packet header analysis to determine the best path for data to travel from a source network to a destination network. When a packet arrives at a router interface, the router reads the destination IP address in the packet header, compares it against its routing table, and then forwards the packet to the appropriate next hop or network interface. This function allows routers to connect multiple networks such as LANs, WANs, and the internet.
The other options do not perform this function. A hub operates at Layer 1 (Physical Layer) and simply broadcasts incoming signals to all connected ports without inspecting any packet information. A repeater also operates at the physical layer and is used only to regenerate or amplify signals to extend network distance. An unmanaged switch operates mainly at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) and forwards frames based on MAC addresses, not IP packet headers. Because only routers analyze packet headers and forward traffic between different networks, Router is the correct answer.
Question: 416
Which of the following is a characteristic to consider when selecting a satellite internet connection?
- Necessary proximity to urban infrastructure
- eSIM requirement
- Line of sight to nearby tower
- Increased latency
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking concepts, satellite internet is commonly associated with higher (increased) latency compared with terrestrial options like cable, fiber, or DSL. Latency is the delay between sending data and receiving a response. With satellite, signals must travel from the user’s dish up to a satellite and then back down to a ground station (and return again for responses). That long travel distance adds noticeable delay, which can affect real-time activities such as VoIP, video conferencing, and online gaming. Even though newer low-earth-orbit (LEO) systems can reduce latency compared with older geostationary systems, satellite service is still generally discussed in A+ as having higher latency characteristics to consider.
The other options do not best fit satellite internet. Proximity to urban infrastructure (A) is more relevant to cable/fiber availability. An eSIM requirement (B) relates to cellular/mobile service, not satellite broadband. Line of sight to a nearby tower (C) describes cellular or fixed wireless services that depend on tower connectivity; satellite instead needs a clear view of the sky toward the satellite (not a nearby tower). Therefore, increased latency is the best characteristic to consider.
Question: 417
A technician is migrating an application server to another server. Which of the following DNS records should the technician create to ensure seamless connectivity?
- TXT
- SPF
- DKIM
- CNAME
Answer: D
Explanation:
To ensure seamless connectivity during (and after) migrating an application server, the best DNS approach in CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) terms is to use a CNAME (Canonical Name) record, which creates an alias from one hostname to another. Instead of users connecting directly to a server’s changing hostname, they connect to a consistent service name (for example, app.company.com).
That name can be configured as a CNAME pointing to the current host (such as server1.company.com). When the application is moved to a new server, the technician updates what the alias ultimately resolves to (or updates the target host’s A/AAAA record), and clients continue using the same familiar application URL/name—minimizing disruption and avoiding the need to reconfigure endpoints across devices.
The other record types are not designed for this purpose. TXT records store text-based information (often verification or policy data). SPF and DKIM are email authentication-related mechanisms (typically implemented via TXT records) used to validate authorized mail senders and message integrity—not application server migration. Because the goal is maintaining a stable name for a service while the underlying host changes, CNAME is the correct record type.
Question: 418
Which of the following supports the most devices due to its status as a legacy technology?
- 2.4GHz
- 5GHz
- 6GHz
- NFC
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. 2.4GHz.
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 networking objectives, wireless networking technologies include frequency bands such as 2.4GHz, 5GHz, and 6GHz, along with related concepts like channels, regulations, channel selection, Bluetooth, 802.11 standards, NFC, and RFID.
The 2.4GHz band supports the most devices because it is the oldest and most widely adopted Wi-Fi frequency listed. Many legacy devices, including older laptops, printers, IoT devices, smart home devices, and wireless peripherals, still rely on 2.4GHz. It also has better range and wall penetration than higher-frequency bands, although it is usually more crowded and slower. Why the other options are incorrect: B . 5GHz
5GHz is newer than 2.4GHz and generally provides faster speeds with less interference, but it does not support as many older legacy devices.
C . 6GHz
6GHz is the newest Wi-Fi frequency option used with newer Wi-Fi standards, so it has the least legacy device support among the Wi-Fi frequency choices.
D . NFC
NFC is a short-range communication technology, not a Wi-Fi frequency band. It is used for closeproximity functions such as tap-to-pay, pairing, and access cards, so it is not the best answer.
Final Answer: A. 2.4GHz
Question: 419
Which of the following is the best option to maintain a stable, tethered connection between a cell phone and a laptop?
- Bluetooth
- USB
- Hotspot
- NFC
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. USB
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives under mobile devices and connectivity methods, tethering refers to sharing a mobile device’s internet connection with another device such as a laptop. There are several tethering methods, including USB tethering, Bluetooth tethering, and Wi-Fi hotspot.
USB tethering is considered the most stable and reliable (tethered) connection because: It uses a physical cable connection, eliminating wireless interference.
It provides consistent bandwidth and low latency.
It also charges the phone while connected, which is an added benefit.
It is less prone to disconnections compared to wireless methods.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Bluetooth
Bluetooth tethering is slower and less stable due to limited bandwidth and susceptibility to interference. It is not ideal for high-performance or stable connections.
C . Hotspot
A mobile hotspot uses Wi-Fi, which is wireless, not tethered. While convenient, it is less stable than a wired USB connection and can be affected by interference and signal range.
D . NFC
NFC (Near Field Communication) is used for very short-range communication like payments or quick pairing. It is not used for maintaining a continuous network connection.
Final Answer: B. USB
Question: 420
Which of the following RAM characteristics allows for recovery from data faults in memory modules?
- Capacity
- Speed
- ECC
- DDR
- Parity
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. ECC (Error-Correcting Code).
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware objectives, RAM types and features include technologies designed to improve reliability and data integrity.
ECC memory is specifically designed to detect and correct data errors (faults) in memory automatically. It uses additional bits to store error-checking information, allowing the system to: Detect single-bit and some multi-bit errors
Automatically correct errors without system interruption
Improve system stability, especially in servers and critical systems
This makes ECC the best choice for recovering from data faults.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Capacity
Capacity refers to how much data the RAM can hold (e.g., 8GB, 16GB). It has nothing to do with error detection or correction.
B . Speed
Speed (measured in MHz or MT/s) affects performance but does not provide any fault recovery capability.
D . DDR
DDR (Double Data Rate) refers to the generation/type of RAM (e.g., DDR3, DDR4, DDR5). It improves performance but does not handle errors.
E . Parity
Parity memory can detect errors but cannot correct them. Since the question specifically asks for recovery from faults, ECC is the correct answer because it both detects and corrects errors.
Final Answer: C. ECC
Question: 421
A company needs to print several copies of a multipage document with the least consumption of resources possible. Which of the following settings will best accomplish this task?
- Duplex
- Orientation
- Tray settings
- Quality
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Duplex.
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam objectives under printer settings and configuration, duplex printing refers to printing on both sides of the paper automatically.
Using duplex printing is the best way to reduce resource consumption because:
It cuts paper usage in half, which is the primary resource being conserved.
It is ideal for multi-page documents and multiple copies.
It reduces physical storage and handling requirements.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Orientation
Orientation (portrait or landscape) changes the layout of the document but does not reduce resource usage.
C . Tray settings
Tray settings determine which paper tray is used (e.g., plain paper, letterhead), but they do not impact resource consumption.
D . Quality
Print quality (draft, normal, high) may affect ink/toner usage, but it does not reduce paper consumption as effectively as duplex printing, which is the main resource concern in this scenario.
Final Answer: A. Duplex
Question: 422
A company rolls out a mandatory OS update to all PCs. A legacy application that one department uses does not function on the new OS and is EOL. Which of the following should a technician suggest to solve the issue with minimal data loss, expense, and disruption to the users?
- Setting up a bare-metal hypervisor to isolate the outdated OS
- Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor
- Upgrading to an alternative product and importing the data
- Uploading the database to a private cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor.
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives, virtualization is a key concept for maintaining compatibility with legacy systems. A Type 2 hypervisor (hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an existing operating system and allows users to run a virtual machine (VM) with an older OS.
This solution is ideal because: It allows the legacy application to run in its required OS environment. It avoids replacing the application (which could cause data loss or compatibility issues). It is cost-effective, as it uses existing hardware. It minimizes user disruption, since users can continue using the application within a VM.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Setting up a bare-metal hypervisor
A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor is more complex, costly, and disruptive. It typically requires dedicating hardware and is not ideal for a single department use case.
C . Upgrading to an alternative product and importing the data
Although this may be a long-term solution, it involves higher cost, potential data loss, retraining, and disruption.
D . Uploading the database to a private cloud
This does not solve the compatibility issue of the legacy application with the new OS.
Final Answer: B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor
Question: 423
Which of the following RAM characteristics allows for the most data bandwidth?
- CAS latency
- ECC
- High clock speed
- Dual channel
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Dual channel.
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware objectives, memory bandwidth refers to the amount of data that can be transferred between RAM and the CPU in a given amount of time.
Dual channel memory architecture increases bandwidth by:
Allowing the memory controller to access two memory modules simultaneously
Effectively doubling the data transfer rate compared to single-channel configurations
Improving overall system performance, especially in memory-intensive tasks
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . CAS latency
CAS latency measures the delay before data is available after a request. Lower latency improves response time, but it does not significantly increase total bandwidth.
B . ECC
ECC (Error-Correcting Code) improves reliability by detecting and correcting errors, but it does not increase data transfer bandwidth.
C . High clock speed
Higher clock speed does increase bandwidth, but not as significantly as enabling dual channel, which allows parallel data transfer paths and provides a greater overall increase.
Final Answer: D. Dual channel
Question: 424
Which of the following video cables uses an analog signal?
- DVI
- VGA
- USB-C
- HDMI
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. VGA.
VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an analog video interface. It transmits video signals as continuous electrical waves, which means the signal can degrade over distance or due to interference. VGA uses a 15-pin connector and is considered legacy hardware in modern systems, but it is still important for CompTIA A+ because you may encounter it in older equipment.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . DVI
DVI can support both digital and analog signals, but in most modern contexts and exam questions, it is primarily treated as a digital interface (especially DVI-D). Since the question asks for a clearly analog cable, VGA is the best answer.
C . USB-C
USB-C is a digital interface that can carry video signals using protocols like DisplayPort Alternate Mode. It does not transmit analog video.
D . HDMI
HDMI is a fully digital interface used for high-definition video and audio transmission. It does not support analog signals.
Exam Tip (Core 1 220-1201):
Analog video = VGA
Digital video = HDMI, DisplayPort, USB-C, most DVI types
Final Answer: B. VGA
Question: 425
An employee is on a business trip and needs to upload daily conferences and meetings to the company’s intranet. The uploading process is successful but was faster in the past.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for the slowdown?
A. Wireless is turned off.
B. 5G is disabled.
C .Roaming is turned on.
D. Data is being throttled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Data is being throttled.
Data throttling refers to the intentional slowing down of internet speeds by a mobile carrier after a user reaches a certain data usage limit or during network congestion. In this scenario, the employee can still successfully upload files, but the speed has decreased compared to before—this is a classic symptom of throttling.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Wireless is turned off
If wireless were turned off, the employee would not be able to upload anything at all. The question clearly states that uploads are still successful.
B . 5G is disabled
Disabling 5G could reduce speeds slightly if the device falls back to 4G/LTE, but it would not typically cause a significant or noticeable degradation unless compared under ideal conditions. It is not the most likely cause.
C . Roaming is turned on
Roaming allows connectivity outside the home network. While it may incur additional charges, it does not inherently cause significant speed reduction in most modern networks. It is less likely than throttling.
Exam Tip (Core 1 220-1201):
Slow but working connection → Think throttling or congestion
No connection → Think disabled wireless or network issues
Final Answer: D. Data is being throttled
Question: 426
A company updates its office with a new multifunction printer. Users report issues when they try to
use scan-to-email functionality. The technician must ensure this feature is properly enabled. Which
of the following should the technician do to resolve this issue?
- Adjust the SMTP server configurations for email.
- Check the printer’s IP address configuration.
- Install the printer’s driver software on all computers.
Questions and Answers PDF 379/419
- Configure user authentication settings for email access.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Adjust the SMTP server configurations for email.
Scan-to-email functionality on a multifunction printer relies on proper configuration of an SMTP
(Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) server. The printer must know how to send outgoing email, which
requires settings such as:
SMTP server address
Port number (commonly 25, 465, or 587)
Authentication credentials (username/password)
Encryption method (SSL/TLS if required)
If scan-to-email is not working, the most common cause is incorrect or missing SMTP configuration.
Without this setup, the printer cannot send scanned documents via email.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Check the printer’s IP address configuration
This ensures network connectivity, but since the printer is already in use and the issue is specific to
email functionality, IP configuration is unlikely the root cause.
C . Install the printer’s driver software on all computers
Drivers are needed for printing from computers, but scan-to-email is handled directly by the printer
and does not depend on client-side drivers.
D . Configure user authentication settings for email access
While authentication may be required in some setups, it is part of the broader SMTP configuration.
The primary and most direct fix is ensuring SMTP settings are correct.
Exam Tip (Core 1 220-1201):
Scan-to-email issues → Check SMTP settings first
Multifunction printers rely on network services (email protocols), not just drivers
Final Answe r: A. Adjust the SMTP server configurations for email
Questions and Answers PDF 380/419
Question: 427
A client requests a new computer for high-performance video editing and virtual reality applications.
The technician must select a compatible motherboard for an Intel Core i9 processor and multiple
graphics cards. Which of the following should the technician do to meet the client’s needs?
- Choose a cooling system capable of handling high thermal output.
- Use DDR3 RAM for increased compatibility.
- Verify there are two PCIe x1 slots for additional devices.
- Select a motherboard with integrated graphics to support video output.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer provided is A, although it is important to note that the question is somewhat
misleading because it asks about motherboard selection but provides mostly incorrect or irrelevant
motherboard-related options.
For high-performance workloads such as video editing and virtual reality (VR) using an Intel Core i9
processor and multiple graphics cards (multi-GPU setup), system design considerations include high
power consumption and significant heat output. In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives
under hardware planning and troubleshooting, high-performance CPUs and multiple GPUs require
adequate thermal management solutions, including advanced cooling systems (air or liquid cooling)
to ensure system stability and prevent thermal throttling.
Why A is the best answer:
High-end CPUs like Intel Core i9 and multiple GPUs generate substantial heat.
Proper cooling is essential for maintaining performance under sustained load (video rendering, VR
workloads).
While not strictly a motherboard feature, cooling is a critical system requirement for such a build.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Use DDR3 RAM for increased compatibility
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Incorrect because modern Intel Core i9 platforms use DDR4 or DDR5, not DDR3, which is obsolete
and incompatible with current high-performance motherboards.
C . Verify there are two PCIe x1 slots for additional devices
Incorrect because PCIe x1 slots are used for low-bandwidth devices (sound cards, network cards), not
graphics cards.
Multiple GPUs require PCIe x16 slots, not x1.
D . Select a motherboard with integrated graphics to support video output
Incorrect because high-performance systems with discrete GPUs rely on those GPUs for rendering.
Integrated graphics are unnecessary and sometimes disabled when a dedicated GPU is installed.
Exam Insight (CompTIA A+ perspective):
In real-world A+ Core 1 scenarios, the correct motherboard selection for this requirement would
focus on:
Multiple PCIe x16 slots (for multi-GPU support)
Compatible socket for Intel Core i9
Support for modern RAM (DDR4/DDR5)
Adequate chipset and power delivery (VRM design)
Proper cooling solution for thermal management
However, since those correct motherboard specifications are not provided in the options, A is the
only viable system-level requirement relevant to stability under high-performance load.
Question: 428
Which of the following is used to implement PoE?
- Modem
- Range extender
- Media converter
- Injector
Answer: D
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Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Injector.
Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows network cables to carry electrical power to devices such as
wireless access points, IP cameras, and VoIP phones, eliminating the need for separate power
supplies. According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking, PoE can be
implemented in the following ways:
PoE-enabled switches: Switches that can supply power directly over the Ethernet ports.
PoE injectors: Devices that add power to an existing Ethernet connection when the switch or router
does not provide PoE.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Modem: A modem connects a network to the Internet but does not provide PoE functionality.
B . Range extender: Extends the range of a wireless network; does not supply power over Ethernet.
C . Media converter: Converts one type of network media to another (e.g., fiber to copper) but does
not implement PoE.
Therefore, when a switch does not natively provide PoE, a PoE injector is the standard solution to
add power to the Ethernet line.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, install and
configure network devices including switches, routers, and wireless access points, including cabling
and PoE.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Networking Devices Chapter.
Question: 429
After a data breach, an affected file server is reimaged and must have the data restored. The server
array is configured as RAID 6. The technician restoring the data notices that the data transfer is
sluggish and restarts the server. After restarting the server, the technician continues the restore
process and sees one red LED in the drive array. Which of the following should the technician do next
to remediate the issue?
- Reconfigure the RAID array
- Run a S.M.A.R.T. test
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- Reinstall the controller drivers
- Replace the failed drive
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Replace the failed drive.
RAID 6 is a redundant array of independent disks that can tolerate up to two drive failures while still
maintaining data integrity. According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives, a red LED on a
drive in a RAID array indicates that the drive has failed or is in a critical state.
Next Step: In RAID 6, a single failed drive should be replaced immediately to prevent additional
failures and maintain redundancy. The array can continue to operate in a degraded state, but
performance may be slow during rebuilds. Replacing the failed drive allows the RAID controller to
rebuild data onto the new drive, restoring full redundancy.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Reconfigure the RAID array: This would erase existing data; unnecessary if only one drive failed.
B . Run a S.M.A.R.T. test: While useful for diagnosing drive health, the red LED already indicates
failure, so immediate replacement is required.
C . Reinstall the controller drivers: This does not address a physically failed drive and would not fix
the degraded RAID array.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot storage
and RAID issues including failed drives and degraded arrays.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Storage Devices and RAID.
Question: 430
When a customer tries to connect a projector to a laptop in a conference room, the customer is only
able to see part of the laptop’s screen projected onto the wall. Which of the following should a
technician do first to troubleshoot this issue?
- Extend the desktop
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- Change the resolution
- Mirror the desktop
- Switch the input source
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Change the resolution.
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives, troubleshooting display issues involves
checking the display settings, including resolution, scaling, and orientation. When a projector is only
showing part of a laptop screen:
The most common cause is that the laptop’s output resolution does not match the projector’s native
resolution. If the laptop is set to a resolution larger than what the projector supports, only a portion
of the screen is visible.
The technician should first adjust the laptop’s resolution to match the projector’s native resolution
before attempting other options like extending or mirroring the desktop.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Extend the desktop: This is only used if the user wants to have two separate screens (dual
monitors), not to fix partial display issues.
C . Mirror the desktop: Mirroring duplicates the laptop display but does not solve issues caused by
resolution mismatch.
D . Switch the input source: Necessary only if the projector is on the wrong input, but the problem
here is a partial display, not no display.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot
problems related to displays including resolution and projector issues.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Display Devices.
Question: 431
Which of the following describes the difference between routers and switches?
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- Routers are programmable; switches are not programmable.
- Switches connect devices within a network; routers connect networks.
- Switches are programmable; routers are not programmable.
- Routers connect devices within a network; switches connect networks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Switches connect devices within a network; routers connect networks.
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 networking objectives:
Switches operate at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) and sometimes Layer 3, connecting multiple devices
within the same local area network (LAN). They manage data traffic between devices by using MAC
addresses to forward frames only to the intended recipient.
Routers operate at the Network layer (Layer 3) and connect different networks together, such as
connecting a LAN to the internet. They use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding
packets between networks.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Routers are programmable; switches are not programmable: Both devices can have
programmable configurations in enterprise environments, so this is not a defining difference.
C . Switches are programmable; routers are not programmable: Same reasoning as above; not
accurate.
D . Routers connect devices within a network; switches connect networks: This reverses the actual
roles and is incorrect.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, install and
configure network devices including switches and routers and describe their primary functions.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Networking Devices.
Question: 432
Which of the following connections would be used to send a print job from a mobile device to a
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wireless multifunction printer (MFP)?
- NFC
- Hotspot
- Infrared
- USB
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. NFC (Near Field Communication).
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices, NFC is commonly
used for short-range wireless communication between devices. In the context of mobile printing:
NFC-enabled printers allow a user to tap a mobile device (phone or tablet) to the printer to initiate a
print job instantly without needing to configure Wi-Fi credentials or use cables.
This is particularly common in mobile-friendly environments like offices or public kiosks.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Hotspot: Provides an Internet connection, not a direct mobile-to-printer interface.
C . Infrared: Legacy technology largely replaced by NFC and Wi-Fi; rarely used in modern printers.
D . USB: Requires a wired connection, not suitable for sending a print job wirelessly from a mobile
device.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Mobile Devices: “Given a scenario, connect and
configure mobile devices including printing via NFC, Bluetooth, and Wi-Fi.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Mobile Device Connectivity.
Question: 433
Which of the following is primarily used to connect different networks?
- Controller
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- Bridge
- Hub
- Router
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Router.
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives for Networking, routers are devices that
operate at Layer 3 (Network layer) and are primarily used to connect multiple networks, including
LANs, WANs, and the Internet. Routers use IP addressing to determine the best path for forwarding
packets between networks.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Controller: Generally refers to a device that manages a network or hardware component but does
not inherently connect different networks.
B . Bridge: Connects two segments of the same network, not different networks, and operates at
Layer 2 (Data Link layer).
C . Hub: Connects devices within the same network segment, simply repeating signals, and does not
perform routing between networks.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, install and
configure network devices including routers, switches, and access points.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Networking Devices Chapter.
Question: 434
A technician adds the NTP service to a server and configures all network computers to that service.
Which of the following is the technician most likely trying to achieve?
- Defined network transport protocols
- Enabled print services on the server
- Synchronized system clocks
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- Defined server options in DHCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Synchronized system clocks.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Server Services, NTP
(Network Time Protocol) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers across a network to a
common time source. This is critical for:
Ensuring accurate timestamps for logs and events.
Coordinating scheduled tasks across multiple systems.
Preventing authentication issues in environments that rely on time-based credentials (e.g.,
Kerberos).
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Defined network transport protocols: NTP itself is a protocol that uses UDP, but its primary
purpose is not defining transport protocols.
B . Enabled print services on the server: NTP does not relate to printing.
D . Defined server options in DHCP: NTP may be referenced by DHCP options, but the act of adding
NTP to a server is focused on time synchronization, not DHCP configuration.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, configure services
and settings on network devices including NTP for time synchronization.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Networking Services.
Question: 435
Which of the following is used to assign an IP address to a network PC?
- VLAN
- DNS
- DHCP
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- TCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:
DHCP is used to automatically assign IP addresses and related network configuration (such as subnet
mask, default gateway, and DNS servers) to devices on a network.
This eliminates the need for manually configuring IP addresses on each PC and helps prevent
conflicts.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network): VLANs segment a network into logical subnets but do not
assign IP addresses.
B . DNS (Domain Name System): DNS translates domain names to IP addresses; it does not assign IP
addresses to devices.
D . TCP (Transmission Control Protocol): TCP is a transport layer protocol used for reliable
communication between devices, not for IP assignment.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, configure TCP/IP,
including DHCP, static addressing, and subnetting.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Networking Protocols and IP
Addressing.
Question: 436
Which of the following can be used by a mobile device to access a secure building?
- Hotspot
- Near-field communication
- Infrared scanner
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- Geolocation
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Near-field communication (NFC).
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Security:
NFC is commonly used for secure access control. Many organizations implement NFC-enabled ID
badges or mobile devices to unlock doors, gates, or secure areas.
The mobile device communicates over a very short range (a few centimeters) with a reader to
authenticate the user.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Hotspot: Provides internet access, not physical building access.
C . Infrared scanner: While used in some legacy devices, it is not commonly implemented for secure
mobile access.
D . Geolocation: Can provide location awareness but does not grant direct access to secure physical
spaces.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Mobile Devices: “Given a scenario, configure
mobile device features including secure access and authentication methods such as NFC and
Bluetooth.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Mobile Device Security and
Access Control.
Question: 437
Which of the following is a key characteristic of cloud computing that ensures resources are
dynamically distributed to meet varying workloads?
- Hybrid deployment
- Elasticity
- Multitenancy
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- Metered utilization
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Elasticity.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Cloud Concepts:
Elasticity refers to the cloud computing capability to automatically allocate and deallocate resources
based on current demand. This ensures that applications have the necessary compute, storage, and
network capacity during peak loads, and resources can be scaled down when demand decreases,
optimizing efficiency and cost.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Hybrid deployment: Refers to using a combination of public and private clouds; it does not
describe dynamic resource allocation.
C . Multitenancy: Describes the architecture where multiple users share the same infrastructure
securely.
D . Metered utilization: Refers to charging based on resource consumption; it is a billing mechanism,
not a dynamic allocation feature.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, explain cloud
computing concepts including elasticity, multitenancy, and hybrid deployment.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Cloud Computing Concepts.
Question: 438
Which of the following virtualization concepts is suitable for a development team that requires a
bare minimum platform to run web applications with the capability to dispose and redeploy as
needed?
- Containers
- IaaS
- SaaS
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- Desktop virtualization
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Containers.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Cloud/Virtualization
Concepts:
Containers provide lightweight, portable environments that package applications and their
dependencies, allowing them to run consistently across multiple environments.
Containers are ideal for development teams because they require minimal underlying infrastructure,
can be quickly deployed or destroyed, and isolate applications from the host system, making it easier
to manage multiple applications simultaneously.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): Provides virtualized hardware over the cloud but is more
general-purpose; it includes virtual machines, storage, and networking, not minimal isolated
application environments.
C . SaaS (Software as a Service): Provides fully managed software to end-users; not intended for
deploying custom web applications by a development team.
D . Desktop virtualization: Provides virtual desktop environments to users; it does not provide a
minimal, disposable platform for web application development.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Cloud and Virtualization: “Given a scenario,
explain virtualization concepts including containers, IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Virtualization and Cloud
Computing.
Question: 439
Which of the following storage devices is most suitable for quick data access and retrieval speeds on
a laptop?
- SATA M.2
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- NVMe SSD
- Optical disk
- 7,200rpm HDD
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. NVMe SSD.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Storage:
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) SSDs provide the fastest data access and retrieval speeds
compared to other storage types, especially on laptops. NVMe SSDs use the PCIe interface, which
allows significantly higher throughput and lower latency than SATA-based storage.
This improves boot times, application load times, and overall system responsiveness.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . SATA M.2: While faster than traditional 2.5” SSDs and HDDs, SATA M.2 is limited by the SATA III
interface (~600 MB/s), which is slower than NVMe SSDs (~3,000–7,000 MB/s).
C . Optical disk: Optical media (CD/DVD/Blu-ray) is extremely slow and not suitable for quick access
or retrieval.
D . 7,200rpm HDD: Mechanical hard drives have the slowest access times and throughput compared
to SSDs.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Storage: “Given a scenario, install and configure
storage devices including SSDs and NVMe drives.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Storage Devices.
Question: 440
A technician is attaching additional internal USB ports to a motherboard. In which of the following
locations will the technician most likely connect these ports?
- TPM
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- Header pinouts
- M.2 connector
- Expansion slots
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Header pinouts.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware:
Header pinouts on a motherboard are designated connectors for internal components such as USB
ports, audio connectors, and front panel buttons/LEDs.
When adding additional internal USB ports, a technician typically connects them to the
motherboard’s USB header pinouts. These headers provide the necessary data and power
connections to enable USB functionality for front-panel or expansion USB ports.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . TPM (Trusted Platform Module): Used for hardware-based security functions like encryption, not
USB connectivity.
C . M.2 connector: Used primarily for SSDs and other small-form-factor expansion devices, not
standard USB ports.
D . Expansion slots: Typically PCIe or PCI slots are used for expansion cards such as GPUs, network
cards, or USB controller cards, but not for connecting internal USB headers directly.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, install and configure
motherboards and internal components including headers and USB ports.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Motherboards and Internal
Connectors.
Question: 441
An administrator must configure a server that prioritizes data availability. Because the server will be
accessed by many users, the administrator must also consider performance. Which of the following
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RAID levels best meets these requirements within a single array?
- 1
- 0
- 5
- 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. RAID 10 (also called RAID 1+0).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Storage:
RAID 10 combines the mirroring of RAID 1 with the striping of RAID 0. This provides both high data
availability (because each drive has a mirror) and improved performance (because data is striped
across multiple disks).
RAID 10 requires a minimum of four drives and is suitable for servers that handle high I/O workloads
while maintaining redundancy.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . RAID 1: Provides mirroring for redundancy but does not improve performance as effectively as
RAID 10.
B . RAID 0: Provides striping for performance but has no redundancy; a single drive failure results in
data loss.
C . RAID 5: Provides parity and can tolerate one drive failure with decent read performance, but write
performance is lower than RAID 10 and rebuilds can impact system performance under heavy load.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Storage: “Given a scenario, configure RAID levels
to balance performance, availability, and redundancy.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on RAID and Storage Arrays.
Question: 442
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A technician is configuring an organization’s managed switch to prevent other users on the same
switch from accessing the accounting department. Which of the following should the technician
configure to accomplish this task?
- Virtual LAN
- DHCP reservations
- Content filtering
- Port security
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Virtual LAN (VLAN).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:
VLANs are used to segment a physical network into multiple logical networks. By assigning the
accounting department to a separate VLAN, users on other VLANs cannot access its network traffic
without routing, thereby isolating sensitive departments while using the same physical switch.
VLANs improve security, reduce broadcast traffic, and allow network administrators to enforce access
controls at the layer 2 level.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . DHCP reservations: Ensure that specific devices always receive the same IP address, but do not
restrict network access.
C . Content filtering: Controls web or application traffic based on content, not segmenting network
access between departments.
D . Port security: Limits which devices can connect to a port but does not provide full network
segmentation for an entire department.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, configure network
devices and settings including VLANs to isolate traffic and enhance security.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Network Segmentation and
VLANs.
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Question: 443
After a laptop display panel was replaced recently, the laptop has had difficulty staying connected to
Wi-Fi. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
- The internal antenna has been damaged
- Airplane mode is enabled
- The inverter is not connected
- The wireless drivers have not been updated
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The internal antenna has been damaged.
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Networking:
Many laptop Wi-Fi antennas are embedded in the display panel and connected via small cables to
the wireless card on the motherboard.
If the display panel is replaced and the Wi-Fi antenna is disconnected, damaged, or improperly
routed, the laptop will experience weak or intermittent Wi-Fi connectivity.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Airplane mode is enabled: Would completely disable wireless radios; the question specifies
difficulty staying connected, not a total lack of connectivity.
C . The inverter is not connected: The inverter powers the backlight of the display, unrelated to
wireless connectivity.
D . The wireless drivers have not been updated: While outdated drivers can cause connectivity
issues, a sudden problem after a display replacement strongly points to physical antenna damage.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Mobile Devices: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot
mobile device connectivity including Wi-Fi, antennas, and wireless drivers.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Laptop Wireless Networking
and Hardware Issues.
Questions and Answers PDF 398/419
Question: 444
Which of the following cable types is a video-only connection?
- DisplayPort
- HDMI
- USB-C
- DVI
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. DVI (Digital Visual Interface).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Display Technologies:
DVI is primarily a video-only interface that transmits digital or analog video signals from a source
(like a computer) to a display.
Unlike HDMI or USB-C, DVI does not carry audio signals, making it strictly for video.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . DisplayPort: Supports video and audio as well as other features such as daisy-chaining multiple
monitors.
B . HDMI: Transmits both video and audio signals over a single cable.
C . USB-C: Can carry data, power, and video/audio signals depending on the device and protocol
(e.g., DisplayPort Alt Mode).
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, install and configure
display devices and connections including VGA, DVI, HDMI, DisplayPort, and USB-C.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Video Connectors and
Display Technologies.
Questions and Answers PDF 399/419
Question: 445
A specialist needs to configure a computer so that it will not boot up using any non-trusted or
unsigned external devices that are connected to the computer. Which of the following should the
specialist configure?
- BIOS password
- Secure Boot
- USB settings
- Single sign-on
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Secure Boot.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Security:
Secure Boot is a UEFI firmware feature that ensures a computer boots only with software that is
trusted and digitally signed by the manufacturer.
This prevents malicious or unauthorized bootloaders and operating systems from loading, protecting
the system from rootkits and other boot-time attacks.
Secure Boot does not require disabling USB devices; it simply checks that any bootable device
contains a signed operating system.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . BIOS password: Protects access to BIOS/UEFI settings but does not verify trusted software during
boot.
C . USB settings: Can control USB access but cannot enforce boot validation for signed OS or prevent
unauthorized boot devices.
D . Single sign-on: Provides authentication convenience for users, unrelated to boot security.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Security: “Given a scenario, configure security
settings including Secure Boot to protect against unauthorized boot and malware attacks.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Security and UEFI/BIOS
Questions and Answers PDF 400/419
Protection.
Question: 446
Which of the following is most commonly used to increase 802.11 wireless throughput speed?
- Licensed bands
- Maximum transmission unit
- Transmit power
- Channel width
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Channel width.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Wireless:
Channel width refers to the size of the frequency band used for Wi-Fi communication.
Increasing channel width (e.g., from 20 MHz to 40 MHz, 80 MHz, or 160 MHz) allows more data to be
transmitted at once, effectively increasing wireless throughput speed.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Licensed bands: Licensed spectrum is used for certain types of communication and does not
directly increase Wi-Fi throughput.
B . Maximum transmission unit (MTU): MTU defines the largest packet size transmitted over a
network but is not the primary factor for increasing Wi-Fi throughput.
C . Transmit power: Adjusting transmit power affects signal range and coverage but does not
significantly increase throughput; it may improve connectivity but not data rates.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot and
configure wireless settings including channel selection, transmit power, and frequency bands.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Wireless Networking.
Questions and Answers PDF 401/419
Question: 447
A server that is crucial for daily operations is experiencing degraded performance. Upon
investigation, a technician sees that one of the drives in a RAID 5 configuration shows a failure alert.
The system must remain online during business hours, and the controller does not support hot
swapping. Which of the following should the technician do to solve the issue?
- Update the RAID controller firmware to support hot swapping
- Implement a software-based RAID solution
- Change the drive during off-peak hours
- Replace the drive with a cold-swappable drive
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Replace the drive with a cold-swappable drive.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Storage and RAID:
RAID 5 provides both data striping and parity for fault tolerance, but if the RAID controller does not
support hot swapping, replacing a failed drive while the system is running is not possible.
Cold-swappable drives are designed to be safely removed and replaced when the system is powered
down, which allows maintenance without damaging the array or system.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Update the RAID controller firmware to support hot swapping: Firmware updates may add hot
swap functionality, but this is not guaranteed and may require a system reboot.
B . Implement a software-based RAID solution: Software RAID requires a system reconfiguration and
downtime; it does not immediately resolve the degraded RAID 5 array.
C . Change the drive during off-peak hours: While feasible, this is essentially the same as using a
cold-swappable drive but is less precise; using cold-swappable drives ensures safe replacement
without downtime considerations.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Storage: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot RAID
Questions and Answers PDF 402/419
issues including failed drives, degraded arrays, and drive replacement procedures.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on RAID and Storage
Maintenance.
Question: 448
Which of the following technologies is the best way to reduce hardware costs in a data center by
allowing multiple operating systems to run on a single physical server?
- Containerization
- Cloud computing
- Virtualization
- Remote desktop services
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Virtualization.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Cloud/Virtualization
Concepts:
Virtualization allows a single physical server to host multiple virtual machines (VMs), each running its
own operating system and applications.
This reduces hardware costs because fewer physical servers are required to run multiple workloads,
and it improves resource utilization, scalability, and management.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Containerization: Optimizes application deployment by packaging applications and dependencies,
but containers share the host OS kernel and are not full OS instances.
B . Cloud computing: Refers to delivering computing services over the internet; it can use
virtualization but is broader and not specifically focused on reducing physical hardware.
D . Remote desktop services: Provides remote access to desktops or applications; it does not reduce
hardware requirements for hosting multiple OS environments.
Reference:
Questions and Answers PDF 403/419
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Cloud and Virtualization: “Explain virtualization
concepts including hypervisors, virtual machines, and cost reduction in data centers.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Virtualization and Cloud
Computing.
Question: 449
A user’s monitor shows strange colored lines and flickers when adjusting the brightness. The user
requires the device for daily professional tasks. Which of the following should a technician do to
effectively address the screen issue, given cost and urgency considerations?
- Suggest the user use a secondary monitor for essential tasks
- Conduct a factory reset to eliminate software issues
- Install a screen protector to minimize flickering
- Check for loose connections on the display
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Check for loose connections on the display.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Display Troubleshooting:
Flickering or strange colored lines on a monitor are often caused by loose or damaged video cable
connections (internal or external).
Before considering costly or time-consuming solutions like replacement, the technician should verify
that the display cable, internal ribbon cables, or connectors are properly seated.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Suggest a secondary monitor: Provides a temporary workaround but does not resolve the
underlying hardware issue.
B . Conduct a factory reset: Resets software settings but will not correct physical connection
problems that cause flickering or colored lines.
C . Install a screen protector: Does not affect video signal or display functionality; irrelevant for
flickering issues.
Questions and Answers PDF 404/419
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot display
problems including artifacts, flickering, color issues, and connectivity.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Display Troubleshooting.
Question: 450
A user receives a warning message on their tablet that states, “You are locked out due to unlawful
activity.” The user was shopping for clothes online. Which of the following should a technician try
first?
- Force close all running applications on the device
- Replace the tablet with a newer device
- Reset the device to default settings
- Restart the device
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Restart the device.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Security:
Warning messages like this can be caused by malicious pop-ups or temporary software glitches.
Restarting the device is the safest and quickest first step to clear temporary processes, refresh the
system, and remove transient malware or pop-up overlays.
This approach addresses the issue without risking data loss or unnecessary downtime.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Force close all running applications: May help if a specific app is causing the pop-up, but restarting
achieves this more reliably and fully resets background processes.
B . Replace the tablet with a newer device: Unnecessary and costly for a potentially temporary
software issue.
C . Reset the device to default settings: This is a last-resort action, as it erases personal data and
settings; it is not the first step.
Questions and Answers PDF 405/419
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Mobile Devices: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot
mobile device issues including pop-ups, malware warnings, and temporary system glitches.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Mobile Device
Troubleshooting.
Question: 451
A financial institution’s application sends a notification to customers when a nearby store accepts
contactless payments. Which of the following should be enabled so the application works as
intended? (Select two)
- MDM
- Contact syncing
- Bluetooth
- Hotspot
- NFC
- Location services
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
The correct answers are E. NFC and F. Location services.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Security:
NFC (Near-Field Communication): Enables the device to communicate with contactless payment
terminals, which is essential for detecting nearby stores that accept contactless payments.
Location services: Allows the application to determine the user’s geographic location so it can
provide notifications only when the user is near a participating store.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . MDM (Mobile Device Management): Manages device policies but does not enable location-based
notifications or contactless payments.
Questions and Answers PDF 406/419
B . Contact syncing: Synchronizes contacts; unrelated to payment notifications.
C . Bluetooth: Can be used for some proximity services, but NFC is required for contactless payment
detection.
D . Hotspot: Provides internet access; not required for proximity detection in this context.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Mobile Devices: “Given a scenario, configure
mobile device features including NFC and location services for apps that interact with external
devices or services.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Mobile Device Features and
Proximity-Based Services.
Question: 452
Which of the following protocols is used for sending emails?
- POP3
- IMAP
- LDAP
- SMTP
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:
SMTP is the standard protocol used to send emails from a client to a mail server or between servers.
POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) and IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) are used for receiving
emails, not sending them.
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is used for accessing and managing directory services,
such as authentication and organizational information, not for email transport.
Reference:
Questions and Answers PDF 407/419
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, configure email
clients and protocols including SMTP, POP3, and IMAP.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Networking Protocols and
Email Services.
Question: 453
Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization?
- Better compatibility
- Reduced network latency
- Secure telnet access
- Metered utilization
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Better compatibility.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Software Troubleshooting and
Virtualization:
Application virtualization allows applications to run in an isolated environment on a client device
without being installed directly on the operating system.
This improves compatibility, as applications can operate regardless of OS differences, avoiding
conflicts with other installed applications or system configurations.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Reduced network latency: Application virtualization does not inherently reduce network latency;
network performance depends on connectivity.
C . Secure telnet access: Telnet is unrelated to application virtualization.
D . Metered utilization: Metering refers to cloud service usage or billing, not a benefit of application
virtualization itself.
Reference:
Questions and Answers PDF 408/419
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Software Troubleshooting: “Given a scenario,
troubleshoot and apply virtualization concepts including application virtualization for compatibility
and isolation.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Virtualization and
Application Deployment.
Question: 454
A shared printer frequently jams, especially when printing double-sided documents. The paper size is
standard office A4. The printer is used regularly throughout the day. Which of the following actions
should the technician take to address the paper jamming issue?
- Clean the feed rollers
- Use a different paper weight
- Replace the fuser unit
- Change the toner cartridge
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Clean the feed rollers.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Printers:
Frequent paper jams, particularly in high-use shared printers, are commonly caused by dirty or worn
feed rollers.
Cleaning the feed rollers removes dust, paper debris, and toner residue that can prevent smooth
paper feeding, especially when printing double-sided documents.
This is a standard preventive maintenance procedure that improves reliability and extends the
printer’s operational life.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Use a different paper weight: A4 standard paper is appropriate; changing paper weight is
unnecessary unless the paper is damaged or incompatible.
C . Replace the fuser unit: Fuser problems generally cause smudging or incomplete fusing, not
Questions and Answers PDF 409/419
frequent paper jams.
D . Change the toner cartridge: Toner issues affect print quality (light or streaky prints), not paper
feeding or jamming.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Printers: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot common
printer problems including paper jams, feed issues, and maintenance tasks.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Printer Troubleshooting and
Maintenance.
Question: 455
A technician needs to replace a laptop’s display assembly. Which of the following should the
technician do to complete this task?
- Reattach the heat sinks
- Reconnect the wireless antennas
- Install a new CPU fan
- Reset the BIOS to default settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Reconnect the wireless antennas.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Laptop Maintenance:
Many laptop wireless antennas are routed through the display assembly to provide optimal Wi-Fi
and Bluetooth signal strength.
When replacing a laptop display, it is essential to disconnect and then reconnect the wireless
antennas to ensure proper connectivity.
Failing to reconnect these antennas can result in weak or no wireless signal.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Reattach the heat sinks: Heat sinks are part of the CPU/GPU cooling assembly and are unrelated
Questions and Answers PDF 410/419
to replacing the display.
C . Install a new CPU fan: CPU fans are part of the cooling system, not the display assembly.
D . Reset the BIOS to default settings: Not required for physically replacing the display; the BIOS
retains settings independently of display hardware.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, replace laptop
components including displays and ensure connectivity of integrated devices such as antennas.”
Question: 456
Employees report that a shared laser printer has difficulty printing on thick paper. A technician verifies that the printer works as expected on standard paper, but output on thick paper is easily smudged when touched. Which of the following should the technician do first?
- Install a maintenance kit
- Change the fuser temperature
- Clean the transfer roller
- Install an OEM toner cartridge
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Change the fuser temperature.
A laser printer fuses toner onto paper using heat and pressure. Thicker paper often requires a higher fuser temperature to properly adhere the toner.
If the output smudges on thick paper but prints fine on standard paper, adjusting the fuser temperature is the first step before performing more invasive maintenance or replacing parts.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Install a maintenance kit: Typically includes rollers, belts, and other parts; this is not the first action if the issue is temperature-related.
C . Clean the transfer roller: Cleaning may improve print quality, but smudging on thick paper usually relates to insufficient fusing heat.
D . Install an OEM toner cartridge: The issue is unlikely to be caused by non-OEM toner if standard paper prints correctly.
Reference:
“Given a scenario, troubleshoot printing
problems including smudging, paper jams, and fuser issues.”
Question: 457
A technician needs to replace the connector on a data cable that uses two pairs of wires. Which of the following connectors should the technician use?
- RJ11
- F-type
- ST
- Molex
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. RJ11.
RJ11 connectors are commonly used for telephone lines and data cables that use two pairs of wires (four wires total).
This connector is standard for analog telephone connections and DSL connections.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . F-type: Used for coaxial cables, commonly in cable TV or broadband internet, not for two-pair data cables.
C . ST: A type of fiber optic connector, not used for copper two-pair wiring.
D . Molex: Primarily used for power connections in computer hardware, not for network or phone cabling.
Reference:
“Given a scenario, install and configure cables and connectors including RJ11, RJ45, coaxial, and fiber.”
Question: 458
An administrator for a wireless network is planning the company’s floor plan using a heat map.
Which of the following types of networks is the administrator configuring?
- SAN
- PAN
- MAN
- WLAN
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network).
A WLAN is a wireless network that covers a limited area such as an office, building, or campus.
Using a heat map helps administrators determine optimal placement of access points, identify areas of weak signal, and plan coverage for employees’ devices.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . SAN (Storage Area Network): Connects storage devices over a network; not used for wireless coverage.
B . PAN (Personal Area Network): Covers a very small area, such as a single person’s devices
(Bluetooth, USB, etc.), not a whole office.
C . MAN (Metropolitan Area Network): Covers a city or large geographic area; too large for a floor plan.
Reference:
“Given a scenario, configure wireless networks including site surveys, heat maps, and access point placement.”
Question: 459
Which of the following describes an advantage of mini-LED displays over OLED displays?
- Increased contrast
- No backlight
- Improved viewing angle
- Decreased burn-in
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Decreased burn-in.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Display Technologies:
Mini-LED displays use an array of tiny LEDs as a backlight for LCD panels.
Unlike OLED displays, which are susceptible to burn-in (permanent image retention when static content is displayed for long periods), mini-LEDs reduce the risk because the pixels themselves do not emit light individually and are less prone to permanent image retention.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Increased contrast: OLED typically provides better contrast because it can turn off individual pixels completely.
B . No backlight: Mini-LEDs still use a backlight, whereas OLEDs do not.
C . Improved viewing angle: OLEDs generally offer wider viewing angles than mini-LED LCDs.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, select display types and technologies considering resolution, contrast, burn-in risk, and backlighting.”
Question: 460
Which of the following is used to verify if a NIC port can send and receive data?
- Loopback plug
- Toner probe
- Cable tester
- Network tap
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Loopback plug. A loopback plug is used to test a network interface card (NIC) port by sending a signal out of the port and back into the same port, verifying that the NIC can send and receive data properly.
This is a common diagnostic tool when troubleshooting network connectivity issues on individual
devices.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Toner probe: Used for tracing and locating cables, not for testing NIC ports.
C . Cable tester: Checks the integrity of network cables but does not verify NIC send/receive functionality.
D . Network tap: Passively monitors network traffic but does not test the NIC port itself.
Reference:
“Given a scenario, use tools such as loopback plugs and cable testers to verify network connectivity.”
Question: 461
A user is trying to present a video in a conference room. The video appears when the user connects the computer to the TV display with an HDMI cable. However, there is no sound coming through. The computer and TV volumes are at 50%. Which of the following should the user perform next?
- Adjust the volume settings
- Swap the HDMI cable
- Reinsert the HDMI cable
- Verify the audio output assignment
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Verify the audio output assignment.
HDMI carries both video and audio signals. If video displays correctly but audio is not heard, it is often because the computer is still outputting sound to its internal speakers rather than the HDMI connected device.
The user should check the audio output settings in the operating system and ensure the HDMI device (TV or projector) is selected as the audio output device.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Adjust the volume settings: Volumes are already at 50%, so adjusting them will not solve the problem if the audio output is assigned incorrectly.
B . Swap the HDMI cable: The video is working fine, so the cable is likely functional.
C . Reinsert the HDMI cable: Unlikely to resolve audio assignment issues if the connection is already
Reference:
“Given a scenario, troubleshoot video and audio issues including external display and HDMI audio output.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Video and Audio Troubleshooting.
Question: 462
A user reports that a network printer has frequent paper jams. The technician examines the printer and finds no obvious obstructions or foreign objects in the paper path. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the issue?
- Check for firmware updates specific to the printer model
- Inspect and replace the printer rollers
- Reseat the fuser assembly
- Clean the printer’s corona wire
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Inspect and replace the printer rollers.
Frequent paper jams with no visible obstruction are often caused by worn or dirty feed rollers, which fail to grip and feed paper properly.
Inspecting and replacing the rollers ensures smooth paper feeding and prevents repeated jams, particularly in high-use network printers.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Check for firmware updates: Firmware updates address software or functionality issues, not mechanical paper feeding problems.
C . Reseat the fuser assembly: Fuser issues typically cause smudging or incomplete toner adhesion, not paper jams.
D . Clean the corona wire: The corona wire affects toner adhesion and print quality, not paper feeding.