Question: 301

An administrator selects a new platform that provides the following benefits:

  • Shares a host OS
  • Shares kernel resources
  • Rapid start and deployment
  • Limited isolation

Which of the following virtualization options did the administrator select?

  1. Type 1 hypervisor
  2. Containers
  3. Virtual desktop
  4. Virtual machine

Answer: B

Explanation:

The virtualization platform described matches the characteristics of containers. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization concepts, containers are lightweight virtualization solutions that share the host operating system and kernel, rather than running separate guest operating systems. This design allows containers to start almost instantly and be deployed rapidly, making them highly efficient and scalable.

Because containers share kernel resources, they use significantly fewer system resources compared to traditional virtual machines. However, this also results in limited isolation, since applications are not fully separated at the OS level. This tradeoff is a defining characteristic of container-based virtualization.

A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on hardware and hosts fully isolated virtual machines, each with its own operating system, which does not align with the shared OS and kernel described. A virtual machine also includes a full guest OS, leading to slower startup times and greater resource usage. A virtual desktop refers to user desktop virtualization, not application-level virtualization.

CompTIA highlights containers as an example of application virtualization that prioritizes speed, efficiency, and portability over complete isolation.

Question: 302

A technician purchases a device that connects directly to the rear of a laptop and provides a one-toone match for every peripheral connection. Which of the following best describes this device?

  1. USB hub
  2. Docking station
  3. KVM switch
  4. Port replicator

Answer: D

Explanation:

A device that connects directly to a laptop and provides a one-to-one duplication of the laptop’s existing ports is known as a port replicator. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device and laptop accessories objectives, a port replicator extends the available connections by mirroring the laptop’s built-in ports, such as USB, HDMI, Ethernet, and audio. This allows users to quickly connect peripherals like monitors, keyboards, mice, and network cables without plugging each device in individually.

Port replicators are typically passive devices and do not add new functionality beyond duplicating existing ports. They are commonly used in office environments where users frequently dock and undock laptops.

A docking station, by contrast, often provides additional or enhanced functionality, such as extra video outputs, higher-power charging, expansion slots, or proprietary connectors. A USB hub only expands USB connectivity and does not replicate all peripheral connections. A KVM switch is used to control multiple computers with a single keyboard, video display, and mouse, which is unrelated to laptop port expansion.

CompTIA distinguishes port replicators as simple port-duplication devices, making them the correct answer in this scenario.

Question: 303

The power supply for a user’s gaming computer fails. The user buys a replacement online. The user connects the power supply to the motherboard, the graphics card, and the SSDs, but the computer fails to start and displays a critical error. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

  1. The computer requires an additional RAM upgrade.
  2. The wattage is insufficient for all the peripherals.
  3. The user did not connect the 4-pin connector for the CPU.
  4. The power supply only operates in a redundant configuration

Answer: C

Explanation:

Modern motherboards require two separate power connections from the power supply: the 24-pin ATX connector for general motherboard power and a 4-pin or 8-pin CPU (EPS) connector dedicated to powering the processor. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) power supply installation and troubleshooting guidelines, failing to connect the CPU power connector commonly results in a system that does not boot and may display a critical or CPU-related error.

In this scenario, the user connected power to the motherboard, graphics card, and storage devices, but the system fails to start. This strongly indicates that the CPU power connector was overlooked, which is a frequent mistake during PSU replacement. Without this connection, the processor cannot initialize, preventing POST.

Insufficient wattage typically causes instability, shutdowns, or reboots under load rather than immediate failure with a critical error. RAM upgrades are unrelated to PSU replacement, and redundant power supplies are used in enterprise systems, not standard gaming PCs.

CompTIA emphasizes verifying all required PSU connectors, especially the CPU power connector, as a critical troubleshooting step when a system will not power on after a PSU replacement.

Question: 304

Which of the following is the standard for Wi-Fi 7?

  1. 802.1X
  2. 802.3at
  3. 802.11be
  4. 802.15.1

Answer: C

Explanation:

The IEEE standard for Wi-Fi 7 is 802.11be, also known as Extremely High Throughput (EHT).

According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking standards objectives, each Wi-Fi generation corresponds to a specific IEEE 802.11 amendment. Wi-Fi 7 builds upon Wi-Fi 6/6E by offering significantly higher throughput, lower latency, and improved performance in high-density environments.

Option 802.11be is the only choice that represents a wireless LAN (WLAN) standard. 802.1X is an authentication framework used for network access control, not a Wi-Fi standard. 802.3at defines

Power over Ethernet Plus (PoE+), which supplies electrical power over Ethernet cables. 802.15.1 is the IEEE standard for Bluetooth.

CompTIA expects candidates to recognize and differentiate wireless standards and their IEEE designations, especially newer technologies such as Wi-Fi 6, Wi-Fi 6E, and Wi-Fi 7. Identifying 802.11be as Wi-Fi 7 is essential for both exam success and real-world networking scenarios.

Question: 305

Which of the following systems most likely contains ECC memory?

  1. A high-end gaming console
  2. A file server
  3. A smartphone
  4. A laptop

Answer: B

Explanation:

Error-Correcting Code (ECC) memory is designed to detect and correct single-bit memory errors, increasing system reliability and data integrity. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) hardware and memory objectives, ECC memory is most commonly used in servers and enterprise-grade systems where uptime and data accuracy are critical.

A file server is responsible for storing, managing, and serving data to many users simultaneously.

Memory errors in such systems could lead to data corruption, crashes, or security issues. For this reason, servers frequently use ECC memory in combination with server-class CPUs and motherboards that support error correction.

High-end gaming consoles prioritize performance and cost efficiency rather than fault tolerance, and they do not use ECC memory. Smartphones rely on low-power mobile RAM without error correction, and laptops typically use non-ECC memory unless they are specialized workstation-class systems,which is not indicated in this question.

CompTIA emphasizes that ECC memory is associated with mission-critical environments, particularly servers and enterprise systems, making a file server the most appropriate answer.

Question: 306

Users in a 200-person call center report that phone calls experience severe performance degradation on busy days. The technician confirms:

  • Upload and download speeds are 50Mbps during a speed test.
  • VoIP call prioritization settings are properly configured for the VLAN that the call center uses.

Which of the following is most likely the cause of this issue?

  1. The QoS is not configured correctly on the router.
  2. The switchports dedicated to the call center are flapping.
  3. The call center’s VLAN is not configured to allow voice traffic.
  4. The bandwidth dedicated to the call center is insufficient.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic is highly sensitive to latency, jitter, and packet loss, especially in large environments such as a 200-person call center. Although the technician confirms that VoIP prioritization (QoS) is configured correctly and speed tests show 50 Mbps upload and download speeds, overall available bandwidth can still be insufficient during peak usage.

Speed tests measure raw throughput at a point in time and do not reflect real-world congestion caused by hundreds of simultaneous calls, application usage, and data transfers. On busy days, the cumulative bandwidth demand likely exceeds the available capacity, leading to degraded call quality despite correct VLAN and QoS settings.

If QoS were misconfigured or the VLAN did not allow voice traffic, call issues would be consistent at all times, not only during peak periods. Flapping switchports would cause intermittent connectivity drops rather than predictable performance degradation correlated with high usage.

CompTIA highlights that bandwidth limitations are a common root cause of VoIP performance

problems in high-density environments, even when prioritization is properly implemented.

Question: 307

A customer reports that internet browsing on their smartphone is fast at the beginning of the month but significantly slows down toward the end of the month. A technician examines the smartphone and finds multiple free cloud backup services running with several gigabytes of personal data spread across each. Data availability is important to the customer. Which of the following is the best way to resolve the customer’s issue?

  1. Disabling all cloud backup services except one
  2. Installing an additional SD card for photos and videos
  3. Expanding the cache storage to consolidate data
  4. Configuring data synchronization only over Wi-Fi connections

Answer: D

Explanation:

The described behavior indicates that the customer is likely exceeding their mobile data allowance each month. Multiple cloud backup services continuously synchronizing gigabytes of data consume large amounts of cellular bandwidth, which can trigger data throttling by the mobile carrier near the end of the billing cycle. This results in noticeably slower browsing speeds.

Since data availability is important, disabling backup services entirely is not the best option. Installing an SD card increases local storage but does not reduce cellular data usage. Expanding cache storage does not address network bandwidth consumption or carrier throttling.

Configuring data synchronization to occur only over Wi-Fi ensures that backups continue uninterrupted when the device is connected to a wireless network, while preventing excessive cellular data usage. This preserves data availability and eliminates unnecessary mobile data consumption, restoring consistent browsing performance throughout the month.

CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device troubleshooting objectives emphasize managing

background services, synchronization settings, and data usage to resolve performance and connectivity issues on smartphones.

Question: 308

Which of the following networking technologies allows for high-speed data transmission over short distances between devices like smartphones and tablets?

  1. Near-field communication
  2. Zigbee
  3. Infrared
  4. Wi-Fi Direct

Answer: D

Explanation:

Wi-Fi Direct is designed to provide high-speed, short-range wireless communication directly between devices such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, and printers without requiring a traditional wireless access point. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, Wi-Fi Direct uses standard Wi-Fi radio technology, allowing devices to communicate at speeds comparable to typical wireless LAN connections.

Near-field communication (NFC) operates at extremely short distances (typically a few centimeters) and supports very low data transfer rates, making it unsuitable for high-speed data transmission.

Zigbee is a low-power, low-bandwidth protocol commonly used for IoT and home automation devices, not for high-speed data sharing. Infrared requires line-of-sight and offers limited data rates, which restricts its usefulness for modern mobile devices.

Wi-Fi Direct is commonly used for tasks such as file sharing, screen mirroring, and device-to-device printing. CompTIA emphasizes understanding the differences between short-range wireless technologies, particularly distinguishing high-throughput solutions like Wi-Fi Direct from low-power or proximity-based technologies.

Question: 309

Which of the following record types is used to create an alias for a domain?

  1. CNAME
  2. AAAA
  3. TXT
  4. A

Answer: A

Explanation:

A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used in DNS to create an alias that maps one domain name to another canonical domain name. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) DNS objectives, CNAME records allow multiple hostnames to reference the same IP address indirectly by pointing to a single authoritative domain name.

For example, www.example.com can be configured as a CNAME that points to example.com. When DNS queries are made, the resolver follows the alias until it reaches an A or AAAA record that contains the actual IP address.

An A record maps a hostname directly to an IPv4 address, while an AAAA record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address. A TXT record is used to store arbitrary text data, commonly for verification, email security (SPF, DKIM), or policy information, not for aliasing.

CompTIA stresses that CNAME records are specifically intended for aliasing and name redirection within DNS, making them the correct answer.

Question: 310

An IP address is automatically assigned to a single workstation in an office, but the technician confirms the IP address is not in the lease pool. This workstation is having issues accessing the internet and internal file shares. Which of the following address types has been automatically assigned?

  1. APIPA
  2. Static
  3. DHCP
  4. Public IP

Answer: A

Explanation:

When a workstation automatically assigns itself an IP address that is not part of the DHCP lease pool, the system has most likely configured an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking fundamentals, APIPA addresses fall within the range 169.254.0.0/16 and are assigned when a device cannot communicate with a DHCP server.

APIPA allows limited local network communication but does not provide access to the internet or network resources such as internal file shares that require routing or proper IP configuration. This explains why the workstation experiences connectivity issues.

A static IP address is manually configured and would not be automatically assigned. A DHCP address would come from the defined lease pool, which the technician has confirmed is not the case. A public IP address is assigned by an ISP and is not used directly on internal workstations.

CompTIA highlights APIPA as a key troubleshooting indicator of DHCP failure or network connectivity issues, making it the correct answer.

Question: 311

A technician is building a home desktop computer. The technician wants to prioritize cable management when considering the type of power supply. Which of the following power supply types should the technician consider?

  1. Back-up
  2. Modular
  3. Standard
  4. Redundant

Answer: B

Explanation:

A modular power supply is the best choice when cable management is a priority. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) power supply objectives, modular PSUs allow technicians to connect only the cables that are needed for the system’s components, reducing clutter inside the case.

This improves airflow, simplifies troubleshooting, and creates a cleaner internal layout, which is especially beneficial in home-built desktop systems. Semi-modular and fully modular power supplies offer varying degrees of flexibility, but all modular designs reduce unused cables compared to standard power supplies.

A standard (non-modular) power supply has all cables permanently attached, often resulting in excess unused cables that obstruct airflow. A backup power supply refers to an uninterruptible power supply (UPS), which provides battery backup but does not improve internal cable management. A redundant power supply is typically found in enterprise servers and includes multiple PSUs for fault tolerance, not cable management.

CompTIA emphasizes modular power supplies as a best practice for clean builds and efficient system design, making this the correct answer.

Question: 312

An administrator is investigating a misuse of printer resources. The administrator suspects an employee. Which of the following will help the administrator verify the source of misuse?

  1. Secure printing
  2. Print counter
  3. Audit logs
  4. User authentication

Answer: C

Explanation:

To verify the source of printer misuse, the administrator needs detailed records showing who performed specific actions and when. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printer management and security objectives, audit logs provide a historical record of printer activity, including user IDs, timestamps, document names, and print volumes. These logs allow administrators to trace printer usage back to a specific user or device, making them the most effective tool for investigating misuse.

Secure printing requires users to authenticate at the printer before jobs are released, which helps prevent unauthorized access but does not provide historical evidence of past misuse. A print counter tracks the total number of pages printed but does not identify individual users or specific print jobs.

User authentication ensures that only authorized users can access the printer, but by itself it does not provide detailed usage tracking unless combined with logging.

CompTIA emphasizes audit logging as a critical component of accountability and security across systems, including printers. When investigating policy violations or misuse, audit logs are the primary source of verifiable evidence.

Question: 313

The computers and IP phones at an office experience degraded performance during the day. The issue does not occur before the start of business. Which of the following will resolve the issue?

  1. Changing the switches to ones with higher capacity
  2. Using VLANs to segregate data and voice traffic
  3. Adding RAM to the PCs and additional VoIP lines
  4. Updating the firmware on the switches

Answer: B

Explanation:

Degraded performance that occurs only during business hours strongly suggests network congestion caused by simultaneous data and voice traffic. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, combining voice (VoIP) and data traffic on the same network without proper segmentation can lead to latency, jitter, and packet loss, especially during peak usage periods.

Implementing VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) allows administrators to logically separate voice and data traffic, enabling better traffic management and prioritization. VLANs also support Quality of Service (QoS) policies that ensure time-sensitive voice traffic is prioritized over standard data traffic, improving call quality and overall performance.

Replacing switches with higher-capacity models is costly and unnecessary if proper traffic segmentation has not yet been implemented. Adding RAM to PCs or VoIP lines does not address network-level congestion. Firmware updates may improve stability but will not resolve sustained performance degradation caused by traffic contention.

CompTIA highlights VLAN implementation as a best practice for environments that use IP phones, especially when performance issues occur during high utilization periods.

Question: 314

Which of the following is the best to use to stream real-time video from a network camera?

  1. UDP
  2. TCP
  3. FTP
  4. RDP

Answer: A

Explanation:

UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is the preferred protocol for real-time video streaming, such as feeds from network cameras. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking protocols objectives, UDP prioritizes speed and low latency over guaranteed delivery, making it ideal for time-sensitive applications.

Real-time video streaming can tolerate occasional packet loss, but it cannot tolerate delays caused by retransmissions. UDP does not perform error checking or packet retransmission, which reduces overhead and ensures smooth, continuous playback. This is critical for live video feeds where delayed packets are useless.

TCP, while reliable, introduces latency due to acknowledgments and retransmissions, making it unsuitable for real-time streaming. FTP is a file transfer protocol and does not support live streaming.

RDP is used for remote desktop access and is not designed for transmitting continuous real-time video streams from cameras.

CompTIA emphasizes understanding protocol selection based on application requirements, particularly distinguishing between reliability and performance needs. For live video, UDP is the optimal choice.

Question: 315

Which of the following is an example of VDI?

  1. Streaming a GUI to thin clients from a server
  2. Provisioning a sandbox as a test environment
  3. Providing high-performance workstations with a local OS
  4. Launching a virtual machine server on a hypervisor

Answer: A

Explanation:

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) delivers a desktop operating system hosted on a centralized server and streams the graphical user interface (GUI) to endpoint devices such as thin clients, zero clients, or standard PCs. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization objectives, VDI allows users to access their desktop environments remotely while all processing and data remain on the server.

Option A accurately describes this model: a GUI streamed from a server to thin clients. This approach improves centralized management, enhances security, and simplifies endpoint hardware requirements.

Provisioning a sandbox is an example of test or development virtualization, not desktop virtualization. High-performance workstations with a local OS are physical desktops, not VDI.

Launching a virtual machine server on a hypervisor describes server virtualization, not desktop delivery.

CompTIA highlights VDI as a common enterprise solution that separates the desktop environment from the physical device, enabling flexibility, scalability, and centralized control.

Question: 316

A user connects a PC to a projector and configures the projector to use HDMI. However, when the user tries to use the projector, the projector shows a black screen with the message “HDMI2 no signal found.” The user reports that the projector worked properly during a previous meeting. Which of the following should the user do to fix the issue?

  1. Replace the bulb.
  2. Swap the video cable.
  3. Change the input source.
  4. Update the video drivers.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The error message “HDMI2 no signal found” indicates that the projector is set to an input source that is not currently receiving a video signal. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) display and troubleshooting objectives, input source selection is one of the first items to verify when an external display shows a black screen but powers on correctly.

Many projectors have multiple HDMI ports (HDMI1, HDMI2, etc.). If the PC is connected to a different HDMI port than the one currently selected, the projector will display a “no signal” message even though the cable and device are functioning properly. Changing the input source to match the connected HDMI port resolves the issue quickly.

Replacing the bulb would not fix a “no signal” message, as the projector is clearly powered on and displaying text. Swapping the video cable is a valid troubleshooting step, but the explicit HDMI2 message points to an incorrect input selection. Updating video drivers is unnecessary when the device worked previously and the issue is isolated to input detection.

CompTIA emphasizes verifying correct input selection as a primary step when troubleshooting external display issues.

Question: 317

A technician must upgrade a computer system to improve its overall processing performance. Which of the following should the technician focus on to ensure maximum system performance?

  1. Integrated GPU
  2. Power connectors
  3. Voltage regulator module
  4. Clock frequency

Answer: D

Explanation:

Clock frequency is one of the most significant factors influencing a computer system’s processing performance. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) CPU and performance objectives, clock speed—measured in gigahertz (GHz)—determines how many instruction cycles a processor can perform per second.

Higher clock frequencies generally result in faster execution of instructions, leading to improved performance in both single-threaded and multi-threaded workloads. While modern CPUs also rely on core count, cache size, and architecture efficiency, clock frequency remains a primary metric for evaluating raw processing speed.

An integrated GPU affects graphics performance rather than overall CPU processing capability. Power connectors ensure proper electrical delivery but do not directly improve processing performance.

The voltage regulator module (VRM) stabilizes and regulates power supplied to the CPU but does not itself increase processing speed.

CompTIA expects candidates to recognize clock frequency as a key determinant of CPU performance when upgrading or comparing processors.

Question: 318

A user’s computer can connect to internal network resources but cannot access websites on the internet. Other users on the same network do not have this issue. Which of the following should a technician do first to troubleshoot the issue?

  1. Verify the computer’s DNS settings.
  2. Replace the network cable.
  3. Restart the DHCP server.
  4. Adjust the firewall rules on the router.

Answer: A

Explanation:

If a computer can access internal network resources but cannot reach external websites, the most likely issue is a DNS configuration problem. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking troubleshooting methodology, DNS should be one of the first items checked when internet access fails but local connectivity remains intact.

DNS translates human-readable domain names into IP addresses. If DNS settings are incorrect, missing, or pointing to an invalid server, the computer will be unable to resolve website names even though it has network connectivity. Since other users on the same network can access the internet, the issue is isolated to the individual workstation.

Replacing the network cable is unnecessary because internal connectivity is already working.

Restarting the DHCP server would impact all users, not just one. Adjusting firewall rules on the router would affect the entire network rather than a single computer.

CompTIA emphasizes starting with least disruptive and most likely causes when troubleshooting.

Verifying DNS settings aligns with this best-practice approach.

Question: 319

A user reports issues controlling the cursor on a company-owned laptop. The technician inspects the laptop and discovers a bulge under the trackpad. Which of the following components should the technician replace first?

  1. Motherboard
  2. Heat sink
  3. Battery
  4. Trackpad

Answer: C

Explanation:

A bulge under the trackpad on a laptop is a strong and well-known indicator of a swollen lithium-ion battery. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device hardware and troubleshooting objectives, laptop batteries are often located directly beneath the palm rest or trackpad area. When a lithium-ion battery begins to fail, it can swell due to internal chemical reactions, causing physical deformation of nearby components.

This swelling can interfere with the normal operation of the trackpad, leading to cursor control issues, clicking problems, or unresponsive behavior. More importantly, a swollen battery presents a serious safety risk, including the potential for overheating, leakage, or fire. For this reason, CompTIA emphasizes that battery replacement should be the first corrective action when physical swelling is observed.

Replacing the trackpad would not resolve the underlying pressure caused by the expanding battery.

The motherboard and heat sink are unrelated to the physical bulge and cursor control symptoms described. Proper troubleshooting requires identifying and addressing the root cause, not the secondary symptom.

CompTIA best practices also stress safe handling and immediate replacement of damaged or swollen batteries to prevent further hardware damage or personal injury.

Question: 320

A small company recently added VoIP through its ISP. Users report intermittent call quality issues during peak hours. Which of the following steps should the IT administrator take to solve the issue?

  1. Configure the VLAN to split services.
  2. Route calls through a gigabit port.
  3. Install a shielded network cable.
  4. Increase the VoIP bit rate.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Intermittent VoIP call quality issues that occur during peak hours are a classic symptom of network congestion caused by voice and data traffic competing for the same network resources. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking and VoIP objectives, one of the most effective solutions is to mconfigure VLANs to separate voice and data traffic.

By placing VoIP devices on a dedicated voice VLAN, the network can apply Quality of Service (QoS) policies that prioritize voice packets over standard data traffic. This reduces latency, jitter, and packet loss, which are the primary causes of poor call quality. VLAN separation ensures that even during heavy data usage, voice traffic remains clear and reliable.

Routing calls through a gigabit port does not address traffic prioritization and is unlikely to resolve congestion during peak usage. Installing shielded network cables only helps in environments with excessive electromagnetic interference, which would affect performance consistently—not intermittently. Increasing the VoIP bit rate would actually worsen congestion by consuming more bandwidth.

CompTIA emphasizes VLAN implementation and QoS as best practices for VoIP deployments, especially when call quality degrades under high network utilization.

Question: 321

A local bank is designing its new infrastructure blueprint. Which of the following RAID types offers

double parity?

  1. RAID 0
  2. RAID 1
  3. RAID 5
  4. RAID 6

Answer: D

Explanation:

RAID 6 is the RAID level that provides double parity, allowing the system to tolerate the failure of two

disks simultaneously without data loss. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) storage and RAID objectives, RAID 6 improves fault tolerance by storing two independent parity blocks across all disks in the array.

RAID 0 provides no parity or redundancy and focuses only on performance through striping. RAID 1 uses mirroring, duplicating data across two drives but does not use parity. RAID 5 uses single parity, allowing recovery from only one failed drive.

For environments such as a local bank, where data integrity and availability are critical, RAID 6 is commonly preferred due to its higher fault tolerance compared to RAID 5. Although RAID 6 has slightly lower write performance due to the additional parity calculation, the increased resilience makes it suitable for mission-critical systems.

CompTIA highlights RAID 6 as a common enterprise solution when both redundancy and reliability are priorities.

Question: 322

A user’s laptop shuts down unexpectedly while connected to a virtual meeting. The user turns on the device several times, but it shuts down again after connecting to the meeting for a few minutes.

Which of the following should a technician do first to troubleshoot this issue?

  1. Run the application in safe mode.
  2. Check the BIOS for the CPU temperature.
  3. Connect to the meeting with a different application.
  4. Verify that the battery is completely charged.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Unexpected system shutdowns that occur after a few minutes of activity—especially during resource-intensive tasks such as virtual meetings—are a strong indicator of overheating. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) laptop and hardware troubleshooting objectives, thermal issues commonly cause systems to power off automatically to prevent hardware damage.

Virtual meeting applications place sustained load on the CPU and GPU, increasing heat output. If the cooling system is malfunctioning (dust buildup, failed fan, dried thermal paste), the CPU temperature can rise rapidly and trigger a thermal shutdown. Checking the CPU temperature in the BIOS or UEFI is an appropriate first step to confirm whether overheating is occurring.

Running the application in safe mode or switching applications does not address the root hardware issue. Verifying the battery charge is unlikely to resolve repeated shutdowns that occur only after several minutes of operation.

CompTIA emphasizes identifying environmental and thermal causes early in the troubleshooting process, especially when symptoms are repeatable and load-dependent.

Question: 323

Two workstations are connected to a LAN that does not have internet access. A user reports that they are unable to access a network service after a power outage. The web page warns the user that the site is insecure. Which of the following will most likely resolve the certificate error? (Select two)

  1. Renewing the SSL certificate
  2. Setting the system date and time in the BIOS
  3. Replacing the CMOS battery
  4. Adjusting the browser security settings
  5. Opening the HTTPS port on the workstation’s firewall
  6. Scanning the LAN for unauthorized devices

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Certificate security warnings commonly occur when a system cannot properly validate the validity period of an SSL/TLS certificate. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking and security fundamentals, two of the most common causes of certificate errors are expired certificates and incorrect system date and time.

After a power outage, systems without internet access cannot automatically synchronize time with an NTP server. If the system clock resets or becomes inaccurate, the browser may interpret a valid certificate as expired or not yet valid, triggering an “insecure site” warning. Setting the correct system date and time in the BIOS immediately resolves this mismatch and is a primary troubleshooting step.

Additionally, renewing the SSL certificate resolves errors if the certificate has legitimately expired or  was invalid at the time of access. This is especially relevant for internal network services using self signed or internally managed certificates.

Replacing the CMOS battery can prevent future time resets but does not immediately correct the certificate error. Adjusting browser security settings is unsafe and not recommended. Firewall port configuration and network scanning are unrelated to certificate validation.

CompTIA emphasizes validating time/date accuracy and certificate status as core steps when resolving certificate-related security warnings.

Question: 324

Which of the following is used to install a network device when electrical outlets are unavailable?

  1. WWAN
  2. ONT
  3. NFC
  4. PoE

Answer: D

Explanation:

Power over Ethernet (PoE) is specifically designed to power network devices without requiring a separate electrical outlet. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking hardware objectives,

PoE allows both data and electrical power to be delivered over a single Ethernet cable from a PoEcapable switch or injector to the connected device.

PoE is commonly used for devices such as wireless access points, IP cameras, VoIP phones, and access control systems, especially in locations where installing electrical outlets is difficult, expensive, or impractical. This makes PoE an ideal solution for flexible and scalable network deployments.

WWAN (Wireless Wide Area Network) provides cellular-based network connectivity but does not supply power to devices. An ONT (Optical Network Terminal) converts fiber signals to Ethernet and requires its own power source. NFC (Near Field Communication) is a short-range wireless technology used for authentication and data exchange, not for powering network devices.

CompTIA highlights PoE as a key networking technology that simplifies installations by reducing cabling requirements and eliminating the need for local power outlets.

Question: 325

Which of the following cables should be installed if nearby electromagnetic interference is a possibility?

  1. STP
  2. UTP
  3. Thunderbolt
  4. USB

Answer: A

Explanation:

Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cabling is specifically designed to protect data transmissions from electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). According to CompTIA

Core 1 (220-1201) networking cabling objectives, STP cables include an additional shielding layer— either around individual wire pairs or the entire cable—that reduces the impact of external electrical noise.

In environments where network cables are installed near heavy machinery, fluorescent lighting, power cables, or radio transmitters, EMI can cause data corruption, retransmissions, and reduced network performance. STP helps maintain signal integrity in these high-interference environments.

Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) relies only on wire twisting to reduce interference and is more susceptible to EMI compared to STP. Thunderbolt and USB are peripheral interface standards, not structured network cabling solutions, and they are not intended for long-distance network installations.

CompTIA emphasizes selecting the appropriate cabling type based on environmental factors, particularly when interference is a concern. For locations with potential EMI, STP is the recommended choice.

Question: 326

An engineer must implement a solution to facilitate and maintain an organization’s legacy application until it is retired. The application is currently hosted on three physical servers. Which of the following is the most suitable concept for this purpose?

  1. SAN
  2. FaaS
  3. Virtualization
  4. Configuration management platform

Answer: C

Explanation:

Virtualization is the most suitable solution for maintaining a legacy application that is currently running on multiple physical servers. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization concepts, virtualization allows physical servers to be consolidated into virtual machines (VMs) that run on a single or reduced number of physical hosts while preserving the original operating systems and application environments.

Legacy applications often rely on older operating systems, specific hardware configurations, or outdated dependencies. Virtualization enables the organization to encapsulate the legacy environment, reducing hardware dependency and simplifying maintenance until the application can be fully retired. This approach also lowers power consumption, hardware costs, and physical space requirements while improving manageability and backup options.

A SAN (Storage Area Network) provides shared storage but does not address application hosting or server consolidation. FaaS (Function as a Service) is a cloud-native, event-driven computing model that requires application redesign and is unsuitable for legacy systems. A configuration management platform is used to manage and automate system configurations but does not replace physical servers or host applications.

CompTIA highlights virtualization as a key strategy for supporting legacy systems, improving flexibility, and extending the lifespan of applications during transition periods.

Question: 327

Which of the following connectors will uplink a new ISP cable modem to its wall jack?

  1. F-type
  2. LC
  3. RJ45
  4. Lightning

Answer: A

Explanation:

A cable modem connects to an ISP’s wall jack using a coaxial cable, and the standard connector used for coaxial connections is the F-type connector. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking hardware and cabling objectives, F-type connectors are specifically designed for coaxial cabling used in cable television and cable internet (DOCSIS) installations. These connectors screw onto the coaxial wall outlet and the cable modem, ensuring a secure physical connection and proper signal transmission.

An LC connector is a fiber-optic connector commonly used with single-mode or multimode fiber cables and is not associated with cable modems. An RJ45 connector is used for Ethernet networking and is typically used to connect the cable modem to a router or computer, not to the wall jack.

Lightning is a proprietary Apple connector used for charging and data transfer on mobile devices and has no role in network uplinks.

CompTIA expects candidates to clearly distinguish between different cable types and connectors based on the service being installed. When the scenario involves a cable modem and ISP wall jack, the correct and standard connector is the F-type.

Question: 328

A user is trying to print diagrams on 11in × 17in (28cm × 43cm) paper. The correct paper is in the printer, but the printer prompts the user to insert paper. A technician assisting the user successfully prints the diagram to a different printer that is the same model. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue on the user’s printer?

  1. Tray settings
  2. Incorrect driver
  3. Connectivity issues
  4. Insufficient permissions

Answer: A

Explanation:

The most likely cause of this issue is incorrect tray settings on the user’s printer. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printer configuration and troubleshooting concepts, printers rely on tray configuration settings to determine the paper size and paper type loaded in each tray. If the tray is not configured for 11 × 17 (Tabloid/Ledger) paper, the printer will assume the required paper is unavailable—even if the paper is physically present.

When a print job specifies a paper size that does not match the tray’s configured settings, the printer commonly displays a message prompting the user to insert the correct paper. The fact that the same document prints successfully on another printer of the same model confirms that the driver, permissions, and connectivity are functioning correctly, further isolating the issue to the local printer’s tray configuration.

An incorrect driver would cause consistent problems across printers, not just one. Connectivity issues would prevent communication with the printer entirely, and insufficient permissions would generate access or authorization errors rather than a paper prompt.

CompTIA emphasizes verifying tray assignments and paper size configuration as a primary troubleshooting step when printers incorrectly request paper that is already loaded.

Question: 329

A healthcare facility is printing government documents on preprinted forms. The output has shifted downward on the paper, and the printed data is not aligned with the blank spaces on the forms.

Which of the following should a technician do first?

  1. Verify that the correct paper type is loaded into the tray.
  2. Make sure that PostScript drivers are being used.
  3. Check the orientation settings of the printer.
  4. Ensure that the pickup rollers are firmly gripping the paper.

Answer: C

Explanation:

When printing on preprinted forms, correct alignment is critical because the printed text must line up precisely with predefined fields on the paper. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printer configuration and troubleshooting objectives, incorrect orientation settings (portrait vs. landscape, or rotated output) are a common cause of print content shifting vertically or horizontally on the page.

If the printer or print driver orientation does not match the layout expected by the form, the output may appear shifted downward or misaligned, even though the correct paper is loaded. Verifying and correcting the orientation setting is a quick, non-invasive first step that often resolves alignment issues without requiring hardware changes.

Verifying the paper type is important, but incorrect paper type usually affects print quality (such as smudging or feeding issues), not precise alignment. PostScript drivers are typically used for complex graphics and publishing but are not the first step for alignment problems. Pickup rollers that fail to grip paper properly usually cause jams or skewing, not consistent downward shifts.

CompTIA emphasizes checking print layout and orientation settings first when dealing with alignment problems on specialized or preprinted documents.

Question: 330

A technician receives several complaints from the same office about VoIP calls sounding broken up, being difficult to hear, and having lagging audio. The technician arrives on-site and runs an internet speed test on several wired and wireless computers. Internet speed seems normal throughout the office. Which of the following should the technician do to fix the call issues?

  1. Enable QoS in the router.
  2. Configure PoE on the switch.
  3. Change the encryption from WPA3 to WPA2.
  4. Turn on MAC address filtering.

Answer: A

Explanation:

VoIP traffic is highly sensitive to latency, jitter, and packet loss, even when overall internet bandwidth appears sufficient. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking and VoIP troubleshooting objectives, normal speed test results do not guarantee good VoIP performance because speed tests measure throughput, not real-time traffic prioritization.

In this scenario, users experience choppy audio and lag, which are classic symptoms of voice packets competing with regular data traffic during periods of network utilization. Enabling Quality of Service

(QoS) on the router allows the network to prioritize VoIP traffic over less time-sensitive data such as web browsing, file downloads, or streaming. This ensures voice packets are transmitted with minimal delay, improving call clarity and reliability.

Configuring PoE only supplies power to VoIP phones and does not affect call quality. Changing wireless encryption standards does not resolve latency or prioritization issues. MAC address filtering is a security feature and has no impact on VoIP performance.

CompTIA emphasizes QoS as a key solution for resolving VoIP performance issues in environments where bandwidth exists but voice traffic is not properly prioritized.

Question: 331

A client is unable to unlock their smartphone. When they try to enter their code, the input is unsuccessful. Which of the following components has most likely failed?

  1. Charging port
  2. Touch screen
  3. OLED
  4. Biometric scanner

Answer: B

Explanation:

The most likely failed component in this scenario is the touch screen. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device hardware and troubleshooting objectives, smartphones rely on the digitizer (touch screen layer) to detect user input such as taps, swipes, and on-screen keyboard presses. If the device powers on and displays the lock screen but does not register code input, this strongly indicates a failure in the touch input functionality.

A failed charging port would prevent the device from charging but would not affect the ability to enter a passcode if the device is powered on. An OLED failure would result in display issues such as a blank screen, flickering, discoloration, or no image at all—none of which are described in this scenario. A biometric scanner (fingerprint or facial recognition) failure would only impact biometric authentication methods; users would still be able to unlock the phone using a PIN or passcode.

CompTIA emphasizes distinguishing between display output issues and input issues when troubleshooting mobile devices. Since the problem specifically involves unsuccessful code entry despite the phone being operational, the root cause is the touch screen.

Question: 332

A technician connects a network printer to a SOHO router. The technician configures several workstations to send print jobs to the printer’s network address. After several days, users report that they are no longer able to use the printer. Which of the following should the technician use to resolve the issue and prevent it from reoccurring?

  1. Network gateway
  2. USB cable
  3. APIPA
  4. Static IP

Answer: D

Explanation:

The most effective solution to resolve this issue and prevent it from happening again is to assign the printer a static IP address. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking and printer configuration objectives, network printers should use static IP addresses to ensure consistent accessibility by client devices.

In this scenario, the printer was initially reachable using its assigned network address, but after several days it became unavailable. This commonly occurs when the printer is configured to receive its IP address via DHCP. When the DHCP lease expires or the printer is rebooted, the router may assign a different IP address, causing all workstations configured with the old address to lose connectivity.

By configuring a static IP address (or DHCP reservation), the printer’s IP address remains constant, ensuring that all workstations can reliably send print jobs without interruption.

A network gateway is used to route traffic between networks and does not address printer addressing issues. A USB cable would eliminate network printing entirely and is not appropriate for a SOHO network environment. APIPA addresses indicate a DHCP failure and would worsen connectivity rather than fix it.

CompTIA strongly emphasizes using static IP addressing for shared network devices such as printers to ensure stability and prevent recurring access problems.

Question: 333

A technician connects a WISP modem to a portable router in order to provide an Ethernet connection to a laptop. Which of the following network types has the technician configured?

  1. WAN
  2. SAN
  3. PAN
  4. MAN

Answer: A

Explanation:

The correct answer is WAN (Wide Area Network). According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking fundamentals, a WAN is used to connect devices or networks over large geographic areas, typically through an Internet Service Provider (ISP). A WISP (Wireless Internet Service Provider) delivers internet connectivity wirelessly over long distances, which clearly falls under WAN technology.

In this scenario, the technician connects a WISP modem to a portable router to provide Ethernet connectivity to a laptop. The WISP modem represents the WAN link, as it connects the local device to an external network (the internet) managed by the service provider. The portable router then distributes that WAN connection locally via Ethernet.

A SAN (Storage Area Network) is used for high-speed storage communication between servers and storage devices and is unrelated to internet connectivity. A PAN (Personal Area Network) is limited to very short-range connections, such as Bluetooth between personal devices. A MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) covers a city or campus-scale area and is not applicable to a single modem-to-router setup.

CompTIA emphasizes identifying network types based on scope and provider involvement. Since a WISP connection extends beyond the local environment and connects to an ISP, it is classified as a WAN.

Question: 334

Which of the following should a technician use in DNS to map a device to an IPv6 address?

  1. A
  2. CNAME
  3. AAAA
  4. MX

Answer: C

Explanation:

The correct DNS record used to map a device to an IPv6 address is the AAAA record. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking fundamentals, DNS uses different record types to associate domain names with specific resources, and each record type serves a distinct purpose.

An AAAA (Quad-A) record maps a fully qualified domain name (FQDN) to an IPv6 address, which is a 128-bit address written in hexadecimal format. As IPv6 adoption increases to address IPv4 exhaustion, CompTIA expects technicians to understand how DNS supports both addressing schemes.

An A record maps a hostname to an IPv4 address only and cannot be used for IPv6. A CNAME record creates an alias that points one domain name to another domain name, not directly to an IP address.

An MX record is used for mail server routing and email delivery, not for host address resolution.

CompTIA emphasizes knowing DNS record types and their specific use cases, especially distinguishing between A vs. AAAA records when working with IPv4 and IPv6 networks. When the requirement is explicitly to map a device to an IPv6 address, the AAAA record is the correct and only valid choice.

Question: 335

Which of the following best describes a Type 2 hypervisor?

  1. It works as a firewall to control network traffic.
  2. It interacts with the underlying hardware.
  3. It runs on a host operating system.
  4. It brings higher CPU capabilities to virtual machines.

Answer: C

Explanation:

A Type 2 hypervisor is defined as a hypervisor that runs on top of a host operating system, rather than directly on the system’s hardware. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization concepts, Type 2 hypervisors are also referred to as hosted hypervisors and are commonly used in desktop, lab, and testing environments.

In this model, the host operating system (such as Windows, macOS, or Linux) is installed first, and the hypervisor runs as an application within that OS. The hypervisor then manages virtual machines by requesting hardware resources through the host OS. Examples of Type 2 hypervisors include VirtualBox, VMware Workstation, and Parallels Desktop.

Option B describes a Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor, which runs directly on the hardware without a host OS. Type 1 hypervisors are typically used in enterprise environments and offer higher performance and isolation. Option A is unrelated to virtualization, as firewall functionality controls network traffic. Option D is incorrect because hypervisors do not inherently increase CPU capabilities; they allocate existing resources.

CompTIA emphasizes understanding the distinction between Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors, particularly that Type 2 hypervisors rely on a host operating system, making option C the correct answer.

Question: 336

Which of the following statements is true when comparing DDR3 RAM and DDR4 RAM?

  1. DDR4 offers faster data transfer rates compared to DDR3.
  2. DDR3 is capable of achieving higher bandwidth than DDR4.
  3. DDR4 operates at a higher voltage than DDR3.
  4. DDR3 is better suited for low-power environments than DDR4.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The correct statement when comparing DDR3 and DDR4 memory technologies is that DDR4 offers faster data transfer rates compared to DDR3. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) memory and hardware objectives, DDR4 was designed as the successor to DDR3 and provides several performance and efficiency improvements.

DDR3 memory typically operates at data transfer rates ranging from 800 MT/s to 2133 MT/s, while DDR4 starts at 2133 MT/s and can scale significantly higher depending on the module and platform.

This increased transfer rate allows DDR4 to handle more data per second, improving overall system performance, especially in modern systems and multitasking environments.

Option B is incorrect because DDR4 achieves higher bandwidth, not DDR3. Option C is incorrect because DDR4 operates at a lower voltage (typically 1.2V) compared to DDR3 (typically 1.5V), making DDR4 more power efficient. Option D is also incorrect because DDR4 is better suited for low-power environments due to its reduced voltage requirements.

CompTIA emphasizes understanding RAM generations, including differences in speed, bandwidth, and power consumption, making DDR4’s higher data transfer rates a key distinguishing factor.

Question: 337

A company wants to enable access to corporate email on smartphones. Employees will choose from a list of supported devices but must install software that separates corporate and personal data.

Which of the following should the company implement to achieve this goal?

  1. Encryption
  2. Network access control
  3. Mobile device management
  4. Endpoint protection

Answer: C

Explanation:

The correct solution for this scenario is Mobile Device Management (MDM). According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device security and management objectives, MDM is specifically designed to manage, secure, and enforce policies on mobile devices used to access corporate resources. MDM solutions allow organizations to require employees to install management software on their smartphones before accessing corporate email. One of the key features of MDM is data separation, often referred to as containerization, which keeps corporate data isolated from personal data on the same device. This ensures that company information remains secure while still allowing employees to use their devices for personal purposes.

Encryption alone protects data but does not enforce separation or centralized control. Network access control (NAC) restricts which devices can connect to a network but does not manage data on the device itself. Endpoint protection focuses on malware prevention and threat detection, not policy enforcement or data separation.

CompTIA emphasizes MDM as the primary solution for BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) and corporate mobile access scenarios, making it the most suitable and complete answer for this requirement.

Question: 338

Which of the following is used to verify the functionality of an Ethernet NIC?

  1. Toner probe
  2. Loopback plug
  3. Wi-Fi analyzer
  4. Punchdown tool

Answer: B

Explanation:

A loopback plug is specifically designed to test whether a network interface card (NIC) can successfully transmit and receive signals at the physical/data-link level. For an Ethernet NIC, the loopback plug connects the transmit (TX) pins back to the receive (RX) pins on the NIC’s port (or through an adapter), creating a closed circuit. When the NIC sends data, it should immediately “see” that data returned, confirming the NIC’s port electronics and basic send/receive functionality are working. This is a direct, controlled test that helps isolate the problem: if the NIC fails the loopback test, the issue is likely the NIC/port/driver configuration rather than the cabling or network infrastructure.

The other tools don’t validate NIC function in this way: a toner probe traces and identifies cables, a Wi-Fi analyzer evaluates wireless networks (not wired Ethernet NICs), and a punch down tool terminates wires into patch panels or keystone jacks. Therefore, the best CompTIA A+ answer for verifying an Ethernet NIC’s functionality is a loopback plug.

Question: 339

Which of the following protocol ports is used for secure remote access to a network device?

  1. 21
  2. 22
  3. 23
  4. 25

Answer: B

Explanation:

Port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell), which is the standard protocol for secure remote administration of network devices such as switches, routers, firewalls, and Linux-based systems. CompTIA A+ Core 1 emphasizes knowing common ports and selecting secure management methods. SSH provides encrypted communication for both authentication and the session data, protecting usernames, passwords, and command output from being intercepted by packet sniffers. This makes it the preferred choice over older remote access methods.

In contrast, port 23 is Telnet, which is also used for remote terminal access but sends traffic in cleartext, making it insecure and generally discouraged in modern environments. Port 21 is FTP control traffic, used for file transfers and typically not secure unless paired with FTPS or replaced by SFTP (which actually runs over SSH on port 22). Port 25 is SMTP, used for sending email between mail servers and is unrelated to remote device management. Therefore, for secure remote access to a network device, SSH on port 22 is the correct answer.

Question: 340

A user needs cellular internet connectivity for their laptop without using an external device. Which of the following technologies can the user use on their laptop to achieve this connection?

  1. Bluetooth
  2. Hotspot
  3. SIM card
  4. NFC

Answer: C

Explanation:

A SIM card enables a laptop to connect directly to a cellular network when the laptop includes an integrated mobile broadband (cellular) modem (often referred to as LTE/5G capable). In this setup, the SIM provides subscriber identity and authentication details required by the carrier, allowing the laptop to register on the cellular network and access mobile data without relying on separate tethering devices. This aligns with CompTIA A+ Core 1 coverage of mobile and wireless connectivity options, including cellular data capabilities and the components required to use them.

The other options do not meet the requirement “without using an external device” for cellular connectivity. A hotspot typically means using a phone or dedicated hotspot device to share its cellular connection over Wi-Fi, which relies on an external device. Bluetooth can be used for tethering, but it still requires a phone providing the cellular connection. NFC is used for short-range communication like tap-to-pair or payments and does not provide cellular internet access. Therefore, a SIM card (with an internal cellular modem) is the correct choice.

Question: 341

A technician recently replaced a user’s laptop screen. Since then, the user has had trouble connecting to wireless networks. Which of the following should the technician do?

  1. Verify that wireless technologies are compatible with the updated hardware.
  2. Reinstall the wireless drivers after the OS is reloaded.
  3. Reconnect the antenna to the system board.
  4. Reset the network services.

Answer: C

Explanation:

When a laptop screen is replaced, the technician typically removes the display bezel and may disconnect cables routed through the hinge area. The Wi-Fi antennas in most laptops are mounted inside the display assembly (often along the top edges of the screen) and their thin coax antenna leads run through the hinges to the wireless adapter connection points on the system board or directly onto the Wi-Fi card (MAIN/AUX terminals). If one or both antenna leads are left unplugged, pinched, or poorly seated during reassembly, the laptop will still detect the Wi-Fi adapter, but wireless performance will be severely degraded—weak signal strength, intermittent connections, inability to see networks reliably, or frequent dropouts.

This symptom appearing immediately after a screen replacement strongly indicates a physical antenna connection issue rather than a driver or software problem. Reinstalling drivers or resetting services would be more appropriate after OS changes or configuration corruption, not after display hardware work. Compatibility of wireless technologies is unrelated to swapping a screen. Therefore, the best CompTIA A+ troubleshooting step is to open the unit and reconnect/secure the Wi-Fi antenna leads to the system board/wireless card.

Question: 342

A technician builds a workstation. When the technician starts up the workstation, the technician notices a burning smell. During POST, the workstation shuts down. Which of the following is most likely the cause of these issues?

  1. The technician did not properly ground the workstation.
  2. The technician chose the wrong type of RAM.
  3. The technician did not connect power to the exhaust fan.
  4. The technician did not apply thermal paste.

Answer: D

Explanation:

A shutdown during POST combined with a burning smell strongly indicates an overheating condition occurring almost immediately after power-on. In a newly built workstation, the most common cause of rapid CPU overheating is improper heatsink installation, especially failing to apply thermal paste (thermal compound) between the CPU and the heatsink. Thermal paste fills microscopic imperfections between the two metal surfaces so heat can transfer efficiently into the heatsink.

Without it, the CPU can spike to unsafe temperatures within seconds. Modern systems detect this and trigger protective thermal shutdown during POST to prevent permanent CPU or motherboard damage. The burning smell can occur when components near the CPU socket heat excessively or when protective coatings/dust residues warm quickly due to poor heat dissipation.

The wrong type of RAM (B) would more likely cause no-boot/beep codes rather than a burning smell.

Not properly grounding (A) relates to ESD damage risk, but that typically causes intermittent or dead hardware symptoms, not immediate thermal shutdown. A disconnected case exhaust fan (C) can contribute to higher case temperatures, but it’s less likely to cause an immediate POST shutdown compared to missing thermal paste on the CPU cooler.

Question: 343

An office manager wants to scan a contract that is approximately 300 pages. The office manager is concerned the process will take a long time because each page must be scanned individually. Which of the following can the office manager use to increase the speed of scanning?

  1. Flatbed scanner
  2. Duplexing
  3. Automatic document feeder
  4. Orientation configuration

Answer: C

Explanation:

An automatic document feeder (ADF) is designed to speed up scanning jobs that involve many pages by feeding sheets through the scanner automatically, one after another, without requiring the user to lift the lid and position each page manually. For a 300-page contract, the biggest time loss is the manual handling of every page on a flatbed. With an ADF-equipped scanner or multifunction printer, the user can load a stack of pages into the feeder tray and the device will process them continuously,

greatly improving productivity and reducing user effort. This is a common CompTIA A+ Core 1 concept when comparing scanner hardware features and selecting the correct device for high volume tasks.

A flatbed scanner (A) is typically slower for large documents because it requires manual placement of each page. Duplexing (B) can be helpful when scanning double-sided documents because it captures both sides automatically, but it does not address the “each page must be scanned individually” issue as effectively as an ADF does for high page counts. Orientation configuration (D) only changes how pages are rotated or aligned in the output file and does not increase scan throughput. Therefore, an ADF is the best choice to increase scanning speed for a large contract.

Question: 344

Which of the following allows an internal application to be hosted without managing the underlying OS?

  1. SaaS
  2. IaaS
  3. UCaaS
  4. PaaS

Answer: D

Explanation:

Platform as a Service (PaaS) is designed to host and run applications while the cloud provider manages the underlying infrastructure and operating system. With PaaS, an organization deploys its internal application code (and often configures runtime settings), but does not handle OS installation, patching, hardening, or most server maintenance tasks. This aligns with CompTIA A+ Core 1 cloud concepts that compare service models by responsibility: as you move from IaaS to PaaS to SaaS, the provider manages more of the stack.

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides virtualized compute, storage, and networking, but the customer still manages the OS, updates, drivers, and the application stack—so it does not meet the “without managing the underlying OS” requirement. SaaS (Software as a Service) delivers a complete finished application to users (like email or CRM), which typically doesn’t fit hosting a custom internal application you develop. UCaaS focuses on communication services (voice, video, messaging) rather than general application hosting. Therefore, PaaS is the best option for hosting an internal application without managing the underlying OS.

Question: 345

Which of the following DHCP components allows a device to be assigned the same IP address anytime it is connected to the network?

  1. Exclusion
  2. Reservation
  3. Lease
  4. Scope

Answer: B

Explanation:

A DHCP reservation ensures a specific device always receives the same IP address from the DHCP server whenever it requests an address. The reservation is typically created by associating the device’s MAC address with a chosen IP address inside the DHCP scope. When that device connects

and performs the DHCP process, the server recognizes the MAC address and offers the reserved IP instead of assigning the next available dynamic address. This is commonly used for devices that benefit from consistent addressing (for example, printers, servers, or network appliances) while still centrally managing addressing through DHCP rather than configuring a manual static IP on the endpoint.

An exclusion is the opposite idea: it defines a range of IP addresses within a scope that the DHCP server will not hand out (often because those addresses are used for statically assigned devices). A lease is the time period that a dynamically assigned IP address is valid before it must be renewed; it does not guarantee the same IP every time. A scope is the overall pool/range of IP addresses and DHCP options (gateway, DNS, etc.) available for a given subnet. Therefore, the component that guarantees the same IP is a reservation.

Question: 346

Which of the following wireless networking technologies primarily operates in the 5GHz frequency band?

  1. Bluetooth
  2. 802.11ac
  3. NFC
  4. RFID

Answer: B

Explanation:

802.11ac is a Wi-Fi standard that primarily operates in the 5GHz band and is known for higher throughput and improved performance compared with older 2.4GHz-focused standards. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 networking objectives, you are expected to recognize which IEEE 802.11 standards map to which frequency bands and the typical trade-offs. The 5GHz band generally provides more available non-overlapping channels and less interference from common household devices (like microwaves and many Bluetooth peripherals), which can improve real-world performance. While 5GHz typically has shorter range and weaker wall penetration than 2.4GHz, it often delivers better speeds in the same-room or nearby-room scenarios, which aligns with how 802.11ac is commonly deployed.

Bluetooth primarily uses the 2.4GHz ISM band and is designed for short-range personal area networking rather than high-speed WLAN connections. NFC operates at 13.56MHz for very shortrange tap-based communications. RFID can operate at several bands (low frequency, high frequency, ultra-high frequency) depending on the use case, but it is not a Wi-Fi networking standard and does not “primarily” operate at 5GHz. Therefore, the correct answer is 802.11ac.

Question: 347

Which of the following internet connection types is primarily used for high-speed internet access in rural areas where traditional broadband services are unavailable?

  1. Fiber
  2. Satellite
  3. DSL
  4. Cable

Answer: B

Explanation:

Satellite internet is commonly used in rural or remote locations where wired broadband options such as cable and fiber are not available and where DSL service may be limited by distance from the provider’s equipment. CompTIA A+ Core 1 emphasizes understanding internet connection types and where each is typically deployed. Satellite works by using a dish at the customer site to communicate with a satellite, which then relays traffic to a ground station connected to the internet backbone. Because it does not depend on local cable plant, telephone central office proximity, or neighborhood fiber buildouts, it can be deployed in areas with minimal infrastructure.

Fiber (A) provides very high speeds and low latency but requires extensive physical infrastructure that is often lacking in rural regions. Cable (D) also requires a local cable network buildout and is usually concentrated in more populated areas. DSL (C) uses existing telephone lines, but performance and availability depend heavily on distance from the DSL provider’s equipment, making it unreliable or unavailable in sparsely populated regions. While satellite often involves higher latency and can be affected by weather, it remains a primary option when traditional broadband services are not present.

Question: 348

An administrator is configuring a server to host several virtual machines. The administrator configures the server and is ready to begin provisioning the virtual machines. Which of the following should the administrator utilize to complete this task?

  1. Device manager
  2. Disk management
  3. Hypervisor
  4. Virtual LAN

Answer: C

Explanation:

To provision and run multiple virtual machines on a physical server, the administrator must use a hypervisor. A hypervisor is the virtualization layer that creates, runs, and manages virtual machines by abstracting physical hardware resources such as CPU, RAM, storage, and network adapters into virtual resources presented to each VM. Once the server is configured with the required hardware support (such as sufficient RAM/CPU capacity and virtualization features enabled in firmware), the hypervisor is the component that enables VM creation, allocation of resources, virtual disk creation, and VM lifecycle actions like start, stop, suspend, snapshots, and virtual networking configuration.

Device Manager is used to view and manage hardware devices and drivers on an operating system, but it is not a VM provisioning tool. Disk Management can partition and format disks, which may support storage preparation, but it does not create or run VMs. A Virtual LAN is a network segmentation method at Layer 2 and may be used in VM networking designs, but it does not provide virtualization itself. Therefore, the correct tool for provisioning virtual machines is the hypervisor.

Question: 349

A device with an IP address of 169.254.34.24 is having trouble accessing internet websites. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?

  1. The static IP address configuration is incorrect.
  2. The DNS resolution failed.
  3. The DHCP assignment cannot be obtained.
  4. The internet is disconnected from the router.

Answer: C

Explanation:

An IP address in the 169.254.x.x range indicates the device has assigned itself an APIPA address (Automatic Private IP Addressing). This happens when the device is configured to obtain an IP address automatically but cannot reach a DHCP server to receive a valid IP configuration for the local network. With an APIPA address, the device can sometimes communicate only with other devices in the same 169.254.x.x range on the local link, but it typically will not have a correct default gateway or DNS server settings. Without a valid gateway, the device cannot route traffic to the internet, which explains why it cannot access internet websites.

Option C is therefore the most likely cause: the DHCP assignment cannot be obtained due to issues such as a disconnected network cable, disabled Wi-Fi, DHCP server outage, VLAN misconfiguration, or a blocked DHCP request/response on the network.

Option B (DNS failure) could prevent name resolution, but it would not by itself cause an APIPA address. Option A suggests a static configuration problem, yet APIPA usually appears when the device is set to DHCP, not static. Option D could also break internet access, but it would not specifically result in a 169.254 address on the client.

Question: 350

Which of the following, when combined, are used to make sure a workstation always has the same IP address on a network managed with DHCP?

  1. Creating a new scope
  2. Enabling network address translation
  3. Assigning a reservation
  4. Configuring an automatic private IP address

Answer: C

Explanation:

To ensure a workstation always receives the same IP address while still using DHCP, the correct method is to configure a DHCP reservation. A reservation “combines” two key pieces: the workstation’s MAC address (hardware address) and a specific IP address within the DHCP scope.

When the workstation requests an address, the DHCP server matches the request to the stored MAC address and consistently assigns the reserved IP each time the device connects. This provides the benefits of DHCP (central management, consistent options like gateway/DNS, easier changes) while giving the workstation a predictable IP, which is often needed for management, monitoring, or firewall rules.

Creating a new scope is used to define an address pool and options for an entire subnet, but it does not guarantee one device always gets the same IP. NAT translates private IPs to public IPs and is unrelated to consistent DHCP assignments for a specific workstation. APIPA automatic private IP addressing 169.254.x.x occurs when DHCP fails and is not a controlled way to ensure a consistent, usable network address. Therefore, assigning a reservation is the correct answer.

Question: 351

Which of the following options offers the best connectivity performance with limited necessary accessories?

  1. Hotspot
  2. Lightning cable
  3. NFC
  4. Bluetooth

Answer: B

Explanation:

A Lightning cable provides the best connectivity performance when you want strong, stable connectivity while keeping required accessories to a minimum. In a mobile troubleshooting and connectivity context, this refers to USB tethering from an iPhone to another device (such as a laptop). Wired tethering typically offers higher throughput, lower latency, and better stability than wireless tethering methods because it avoids Wi-Fi interference, signal loss, and radio congestion. It also reduces configuration variables—once the cable is connected and tethering is enabled, the connection is generally consistent and less prone to dropouts than wireless options.

A hotspot can provide good performance, but it relies on Wi-Fi and is more susceptible to interference and distance, and it also increases battery drain. Bluetooth tethering works with minimal setup but is usually the slowest option and is best suited for low-bandwidth needs. NFC is used for short-range pairing or tap-to-connect actions and does not provide an internet data connection by itself. Therefore, the best option for performance with limited accessories is using a Lightning cable.

Question: 352

A network printer consistently produces faint printouts. Users report that the issue persists across different computers and print jobs. Which of the following steps should the technician take first?

  1. Run a printer calibration process.
  2. Replace the toner cartridge.
  3. Reinstall the printer drivers.
  4. Adjust the fuser temperature.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Because the printer is a network printer and the issue occurs across multiple computers and different print jobs, the problem is very likely within the printer hardware/consumables, not the PC drivers or a single workstation configuration. Faint printing is a classic symptom of low or depleted toner (or an aging toner cartridge that is no longer distributing toner evenly). In CompTIA A+ troubleshooting methodology, you start with the most probable and simplest cause before performing deeper configuration changes or part-level adjustments. Replacing the toner cartridge is a straightforward first action that often resolves consistent faint output quickly and restores normal print density.

Reinstalling printer drivers would typically be indicated if only one computer had issues or if output problems changed based on driver settings; that is not the case here. Adjusting fuser temperature is not a normal first-line step for faint prints and is usually associated with toner not bonding properly (smearing or flaking), not consistently light output. Calibration can be useful for alignment or color/quality tuning, but it does not usually fix a persistent, uniform faintness caused by insufficient toner. Therefore, replace the toner cartridge first.

Question: 353

Which of the following services allows a networked host to automatically assign IP addresses to devices on a network?

  1. DNS
  2. DHCP
  3. SMTP
  4. SNMP

Answer: B

Explanation:

DHCP Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is the service that automatically assigns IP addresses and other essential network settings to devices when they join a network. Instead of manually configuring each device with an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers, a DHCP server provides these settings dynamically from a defined address pool. This reduces configuration errors, prevents IP conflicts, and makes network administration easier—especially in environments with many devices or frequent changes. In the DHCP process, a client broadcasts a request, the DHCP server offers an address, the client requests that offered address, and the server acknowledges it, granting the device a lease for a specific period. The lease can be renewed, and administrators can also configure reservations to always give the same IP to a particular device based on its MAC address.

DNS is used for resolving hostnames to IP addresses, not assigning them. SMTP is for sending email between mail servers and clients. SNMP is used for monitoring and managing network devices.

Therefore, DHCP is the correct service for automatically assigning IP addresses.

Question: 354

A company wants to optimize its hardware usage by running multiple operating systems concurrently on a single physical server. Which of the following concepts achieves this goal?

  1. Host-based virtualization
  2. Public cloud services
  3. High-availability clustering
  4. Software as a service
  5. Load balancing

Answer: A

Explanation:

Running multiple operating systems at the same time on a single physical server is accomplished through virtualization. In this scenario, host-based virtualization means a host operating system is installed on the physical server first, and then virtualization software runs on top of that OS to create and manage multiple virtual machines. Each virtual machine can run its own guest operating system independently, while sharing the server’s CPU, RAM, storage, and network resources. This improves hardware utilization because one physical server can replace multiple separate machines, and resources can be allocated to VMs based on workload needs. The other options do not directly describe the concept of running multiple OS instances on the same physical hardware. Public cloud services describe a delivery model where resources are provided by a third-party provider, but the underlying concept enabling multiple OS instances is still virtualization. High-availability clustering focuses on redundancy and failover across multiple servers.

Software as a service provides a completed application to users, not multiple OS instances. Load balancing distributes traffic across systems and does not create separate operating systems. Therefore, the correct choice is host-based virtualization.

Question: 355

A user goes to their office and forgets their laptop charger. After borrowing a charger, the user notices that the battery is charging slowly. Which of the following steps should a technician take first to charge the battery normally?

  1. Adjust laptop battery performance.
  2. Try a different charging port.
  3. Use a different power supply.
  4. Replace the laptop battery.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The most likely cause of slow charging after borrowing a charger is that the borrowed adapter is not the correct wattage or is not fully compatible with the laptop. Many laptops will still charge with an underpowered or non-matching adapter, but they often charge very slowly, may display a warning like “plugged in, not charging fast,” or may reduce performance to stay within the available power budget. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 troubleshooting, the first step is to check the simplest and most probable cause, especially when the symptom began immediately after a change.

Using the proper manufacturer-recommended charger (correct voltage/amperage and connector type, or correct USBC PD wattage profile if applicable) restores normal charging behavior in most cases. Adjusting battery performance settings might reduce power draw but does not address the root cause of insufficient charger output. Trying a different charging port can help if a port is damaged, but the timing strongly points to the borrowed charger. Replacing the battery is the most invasive and least likely first step because the battery was presumably functioning before the charger change. Therefore, the technician should first use a different, known-good power supply with the correct specifications.

Question: 356

Which of the following networking hardware devices is primarily used to connect different network segments and forward data based on MAC addresses?

  1. Router
  2. Switch
  3. Modem
  4. Firewall

Answer: B

Explanation:

A switch is the device that primarily forwards traffic based on MAC addresses and is used to connect devices within the same local network. It operates at Layer 2 (Data Link) of the OSI model. When a switch receives an Ethernet frame, it reads the source MAC address and records it in its MAC address table along with the port it arrived on. Then, when the switch needs to send a frame to a destination, it looks up the destination MAC address in that table and forwards the frame only out the correct port. This makes switching efficient and reduces unnecessary traffic compared to older hub-based networks. In CompTIA A+ Core 1, recognizing that MAC-based forwarding is a key switch function is essential.

A router forwards traffic based on IP addresses at Layer 3 and is used to connect different IP networks or VLANs. A modem converts signals for ISP connectivity (e.g., cable/DSL/fiber handoff) and does not forward frames by MAC table learning. A firewall filters traffic based on security rules and is not primarily a MAC-forwarding device. Therefore, the best answer is Switch.

Question: 357

A programmer needs to run a virtual machine on their laptop to test an application. Which of the following virtualization technologies is the best way to accomplish this goal?

  1. Containerization
  2. Hypervisor
  3. Virtual desktop infrastructure
  4. Emulation

Answer: B

Explanation:

A hypervisor is the best choice because it is the technology specifically used to create, run, and manage virtual machines. On a laptop, this is typically a Type 2 hypervisor (hosted hypervisor) that runs on top of the existing operating system and allows the programmer to install a separate guest OS in a VM for testing. This provides strong isolation, supports snapshots/checkpoints in many platforms, and lets the tester replicate different OS environments, configurations, and software dependencies without altering the host system. That matches the scenario exactly: the user needs an actual VM environment on their local machine.

Containerization is useful for packaging and running applications in isolated user spaces, but containers share the host OS kernel and are not full virtual machines. If the test requires a different OS or kernel-level behavior, containers won’t meet the requirement. VDI delivers desktops hosted on remote servers, not a local VM running on the laptop. Emulation imitates different hardware/architectures and is typically slower and used when running software built for incompatible hardware, which is unnecessary for standard VM testing. Therefore, a hypervisor is the best answer.

Question: 358

A user’s laptop experiences intermittent issues during startup. A technician finds that the user has left a corporate flash drive plugged in, which is causing the issues. Which of the following should the technician configure?

  1. BitLocker
  2. Boot options
  3. USB Enable
  4. TPM features

Answer: B

Explanation:

If a laptop has a USB flash drive connected during startup, the system firmware BIOS or UEFI may attempt to boot from that USB device depending on the configured boot order or boot priority. This can cause intermittent startup behavior because the laptop might sometimes detect the flash drive as a bootable device and try to load from it instead of the internal drive, leading to delays, boot errors, or unexpected screens. The correct fix is to adjust boot options in BIOS/UEFI: set the internal SSD/HDD as the first boot device, reduce the priority of USB boot devices, or disable booting from external media when appropriate for the environment. This addresses the root cause directly and prevents the presence of a flash drive from affecting normal startup. BitLocker and TPM features relate to drive encryption and secure key storage and are not the primary reason the system is changing its boot behavior. “USB Enable” would control whether USB ports function, but disabling USB entirely is not a targeted first step and could break keyboards/mice or legitimate USB use. Therefore, the correct configuration item is Boot options.

Question: 359

A customer experiences a power outage at their data center. After the outage, one server with three hard drives in RAID 5 does not come back online. When a technician connects to the server, they receive a message stating that Drive 3 has failed. Which of the following steps should the technician take next to minimize the risk of data loss?

  1. Replace the defective drive and trigger an array rebuild.
  2. Acknowledge the drive error and allow the system to start normally.
  3. Upgrade the firmware on the drives.
  4. Perform a full drive restore from the most recent backup.

Answer: A

Explanation:

RAID 5 provides fault tolerance by distributing parity information across all drives, allowing the array to continue operating if one drive fails. In a three-drive RAID 5 set, a single disk failure puts the array into a degraded state where it can still function, but it is at higher risk because losing a second drive before recovery would cause data loss. Since the system reports Drive 3 has failed after a power outage, the best next step to minimize risk is to replace the failed drive immediately and start the rebuild. Rebuilding regenerates the missing data blocks onto the new drive using parity, returning the array to a protected state.

Option B leaves the array degraded and increases exposure to a second failure. Option C (firmware upgrade) is not a first response in an active failure scenario and can introduce additional risk or downtime. Option D (restore from backup) is typically used when the array is unrecoverable or multiple drives fail; it is more disruptive and unnecessary when RAID 5 can recover from a single-disk failure. Therefore, replacing the defective drive and triggering an array rebuild is the correct next step.

Question: 360

A user is setting up a gaming PC with multiple GPUs to play highly advanced games. The user’s primary concern is that the power supply is sufficient to support these tasks while allowing for future upgrades. Which of the following power supply configurations should the user select?

  1. Redundant
  2. Non-modular
  3. Low wattage
  4. Multiple-rail

Answer: D

Explanation:

For a gaming PC with multiple GPUs, the power supply must safely deliver high current on the 12V rails, since GPUs and CPUs draw most of their power from 12V. A multiple-rail power supply divides the 12V output into separate rails protected by overcurrent protection (OCP). This configuration helps prevent a single rail from being overloaded and can provide safer distribution when several high-draw components (multiple GPUs, high-end CPU) are installed. From a CompTIA A+ Core 1 perspective, selecting PSU characteristics that match system load and expansion needs is key, and multi-rail designs are directly related to supporting multiple high-power devices with better protection controls.

The other options do not meet the goal. Redundant PSUs are typically used in servers for uptime, not consumer gaming builds, and they don’t inherently address GPU power distribution. Non-modular only affects cable management and airflow, not power capability or scalability. Low wattage directly conflicts with the requirement for multi-GPU performance and future upgrades. Therefore, the best choice given is multiple-rail.

Question: 361

A user’s tablet screen is unresponsive to touch. The device does not show any signs of physical damage, and a system reset does not resolve the issue. Which of the following should a technician replace?

  1. Battery
  2. Motherboard
  3. LCD screen
  4. Digitizer

Answer: D

Explanation:

A tablet’s display is made of two key parts that work together: the LCD (or OLED) that shows the image, and the digitizer that detects touch input. If the screen image looks normal but the device does not respond to taps, swipes, or gestures, the most likely failed component is the digitizer (or the digitizer layer/cable). The digitizer is a transparent sensor grid that converts touch into signals the system can interpret. When it fails, the tablet may still power on and show a clear picture, but touch will not register at all or will behave erratically.

Because the device shows no physical damage and a system reset does not fix the issue, this points away from a software glitch and toward a hardware input failure. Replacing the LCD screen is typically indicated when you see display problems such as no image, distorted colors, flickering, dead pixels, or backlight issues—not purely touch failure. A battery problem would affect power/charging, not touch responsiveness. A motherboard replacement is far more invasive and not the most likely first hardware fix for a touch-only failure. Therefore, the correct component to replace is the digitizer.

Question: 362

Which of the following cloud models allows an organization to have exclusive access to cloud resources?

  1. Public
  2. Hybrid
  3. Private
  4. Community

Answer: C

Explanation:

A private cloud provides cloud resources that are dedicated to a single organization, giving that organization exclusive use of the underlying infrastructure. This model is selected when a company needs tighter control over security, compliance, performance, and customization than what is typically available in a multi-tenant public cloud environment. Private cloud resources can be hosted on-premises in the organization’s own data center or hosted by a third party, but the key point is exclusive access—the hardware and cloud environment are not shared with unrelated customers. A public cloud is shared among multiple customers (multi-tenant), so it is not exclusive. A hybrid cloud combines two environments, usually a private cloud and a public cloud, which can help with flexibility and scaling, but it is not defined as exclusive because part of it may be public. A community cloud is shared by organizations with common needs (such as similar compliance requirements), meaning it is shared among multiple entities rather than exclusive to one organization. Therefore, the cloud model that provides exclusive access to resources is Private.

Question: 363

A user turns on their laptop. The keyboard lights up, but the screen is black even after the user restarts the laptop. Which of the following should a technician do next to troubleshoot the issue?

  1. Connect the laptop to an external monitor.
  2. Remove the device bezel.
  3. Plug in a laptop charger.
  4. Replace the laptop.

Answer: A

Explanation:

When the keyboard backlight turns on, the laptop is receiving power and at least partially completing its startup hardware initialization. A black internal display can be caused by multiple issues, including a failed LCD/backlight, a loose or damaged display cable, an incorrect display output selection, or a graphics subsystem problem. The best next troubleshooting step is to connect the laptop to an external monitor because it quickly isolates whether the problem is with the internal display assembly or with the system’s ability to generate video at all.

If the external monitor displays video normally, the GPU and motherboard are likely functioning, and the technician should focus on the laptop’s internal screen components such as the LCD panel, backlight, display cable, or connector seating—often accessed by removing the bezel only after confirming this. If the external monitor also shows no video, the issue is more likely related to graphics output, memory, motherboard, or firmware/POST problems, and further internal diagnostics are required. Plugging in a charger is reasonable if the device seems underpowered, but it does not directly test the video path. Replacing the laptop is not an appropriate “next step” in troubleshooting.

Question: 364

Switch#show running-config | section interface

interface gigabitEthernet0/1

ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.0

duplex full

speed 1000

description Sales

interface gigabitEthernet0/2

ip address 192.168.1.12 255.255.255.0

duplex full

speed 1000

description CustomerService

interface gigabitEthernet0/3

ip address 192.168.1.13 255.255.255.0

duplex auto

speed auto

description Marketing

Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issues?

  1. The marketing department subnet has an error.
  2. The structured Cat 5e cabling is outdated.
  3. The interfaces are configured with incorrect IP addresses.
  4. The marketing department interface is running at 10/100.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Gigabit Ethernet interfaces are capable of 1000 Mbps, but the actual link speed is determined by negotiation between the switch port and the connected device, along with the quality/type of cabling. In this configuration, Sales and Customer Service ports are manually set to speed 1000 and duplex full, which forces gigabit operation. However, the Marketing port is set to speed auto and duplex auto. If the connected endpoint, patch cable, wall jack, or intermediate wiring for Marketing cannot support gigabit (or has a termination problem), the link may auto-negotiate down to 100 Mbps or 10 Mbps. That creates a clear performance bottleneck for that department compared to the other two ports running at 1 Gbps.

The IP addresses shown are consistent within the same /24 network and do not indicate an obvious addressing problem, so “incorrect IP addresses” is unlikely. “Subnet error” is not supported by the given config, and Cat 5e is generally capable of gigabit at typical distances, so “outdated” cable is not the best explanation from these choices. The most likely cause is Marketing running at 10/100 due to negotiation.

Question: 365

An end user is able to send emails but not receive them. Which of the following settings should a technician check first on the user’s laptop to troubleshoot the issue?

  1. DNS
  2. SMTP
  3. IMAP
  4. DMARC

Answer: C

Explanation:

If a user can send email but cannot receive email, the most likely issue is with the incoming mail configuration rather than the outgoing mail configuration. SMTP is primarily used for sending mail from a client to a mail server (and between mail servers), so working outbound email strongly suggests SMTP settings are correct. To receive email, the client must connect to an incoming mail service such as IMAP (or POP3). Therefore, the first setting to verify on the laptop is the IMAP configuration, including the incoming server address, port number, encryption method (SSL/TLS), and authentication credentials. If any of these are wrong, the client may fail to synchronize the mailbox, making it appear that mail is not arriving even though messages exist on the server. DNS can affect both sending and receiving because clients must resolve mail server hostnames, but when the symptom is specifically “send works, receive fails,” checking the dedicated incoming protocol settings is the most direct and likely fix. DMARC is an email authentication policy used at the domain level and is not a laptop-side setting the technician would check first for a single user’s inbound mail problem.

Question: 366

A user has two SSDs of the same size in their PC. The user wants to configure both SSDs to have a copy of all data so there will be no data loss if one drive fails. Which of the following is this an example of?

  1. RAID 0
  2. RAID 1
  3. RAID 5
  4. RAID 10

Answer: B

Explanation:

This scenario describes disk mirroring, which is RAID 1. With RAID 1, the same data is written to two drives simultaneously, creating an exact duplicate on each SSD. If one drive fails, the system can continue to operate using the remaining drive with no loss of data, which directly matches the requirement “no data loss if one drive fails.” RAID 1 is commonly used when fault tolerance and data redundancy are the priority. A key trade-off is capacity: because the data is duplicated, the usable storage is essentially the size of one of the drives (two 1TB drives in RAID 1 provide about 1TB usable). Performance can vary: read performance may improve slightly in some implementations, but write performance is generally similar to a single drive because data must be written to both drives.

RAID 0 is striping with no redundancy, so a single drive failure causes total data loss. RAID 5 requires at least three drives and uses parity. RAID 10 requires at least four drives and combines mirroring and striping. Therefore, the correct answer is RAID 1.

Question: 367

A technician is evaluating how to connect a power-redundant server to the outlets of a rack. Which of the following is the best way to provide electricity to the server?

  1. Using only one power outlet, as the system will provide energy to the redundant source
  2. Leaving one of the power supplies disconnected for use in case the other fails
  3. Identifying available power outlets in different UPSs and distributing the connection between them
  4. Connecting the device to one dedicated battery backup to provide continuous energy

Answer: C

Explanation:

A power-redundant server typically has two power supplies so the system can continue operating if one power supply or one power feed fails. To gain the full benefit of redundancy, each PSU should be connected to independent power sources—commonly separate PDUs that are backed by different UPS units (and ideally separate circuits). This design removes a single point of failure: if one UPS Comprehensive and Detailed 150 to 250 words of Explanation From CompTIA Core 1 Knowledge trips, fails, or is taken offline for maintenance, the other UPS still provides power and the server stays online.

Option C is best because it explicitly describes distributing the connections across different UPSs, which is the correct redundancy practice in a rack environment. Option A defeats redundancy because a single outlet/UPS failure would still bring the server down. Option B also wastes redundancy and can cause immediate downtime if the connected PSU fails, since the second PSU isn’t actively providing standby power. Option D still leaves a single UPS as the single point of failure.

Therefore, splitting the two PSU power cords across separate UPS-backed outlets is the best approach.

Question: 368

A customer’s laptop is no longer charging when plugged in to the docking station. A technician observes that none of the devices plugged in to the dock appear to be functioning. The technician verifies that the dock has power, the laptop ports are not damaged, and the BIOS updates are current, but the issue persists. Which of the following should the technician do next?

  1. Switch the power supply.
  2. Replace the dock with a new one.
  3. Reinstall the OS on the laptop.
  4. Roll back the BIOS updates.

Answer: B

Explanation:

When both charging and dock-connected peripherals fail at the same time, the problem is most likely with the dock itself or its internal controller circuitry rather than the laptop’s operating system or a single peripheral device. The technician has already verified key prerequisites: the dock has power, the laptop ports show no physical damage, and system firmware (BIOS/UEFI) is current. Those checks reduce the likelihood of a simple firmware incompatibility or a damaged laptop connector.

In CompTIA A+ troubleshooting methodology, the next step is to substitute with a known-good component to isolate the fault quickly. Replacing (or testing with) another dock confirms whether the original docking station has failed. If the replacement dock restores charging and peripherals immediately, the root cause is confirmed without unnecessary invasive actions.

Switching the power supply could be a valid step if power was questionable, but the prompt states the dock already has power and still provides no function—pointing to dock failure. Reinstalling the OS is excessive and unlikely because charging through a dock is not primarily OS-dependent. Rolling back BIOS updates is also not indicated because the issue persists despite current firmware and there is no evidence the BIOS update caused it.

Question: 369

Which of the following devices is designed specifically to allow multiple network devices to communicate across a single platform?

  1. NIC
  2. Firewall
  3. Switch
  4. Routers

Answer: C

Explanation:

A switch is designed to connect multiple devices within the same local network so they can communicate efficiently. In a typical LAN, a switch provides multiple Ethernet ports and forwards traffic between connected devices by using MAC addresses. When a frame enters a switch port, the switch learns the source MAC address and associates it with that port in a MAC address table. When the destination MAC is known, the switch sends the frame only out the correct port, which reduces unnecessary traffic and improves performance compared to older hub-based networks. This is exactly what is meant by allowing multiple network devices to communicate “across a single platform” (the switching fabric).

A NIC is an adapter in an endpoint device that provides network connectivity, but it does not interconnect multiple devices by itself. A firewall focuses on filtering and controlling traffic based on security rules, not primarily on providing multi-device LAN connectivity. Routers connect different networks and forward traffic based on IP addresses (Layer 3), which is not the primary device for multi-device communication within the same network segment. Therefore, the correct answer is Switch.

Question: 370

Which of the following is used to verify that an emailer is allowed and designated to send emails from a particular IP address?

  1. CNAME
  2. SPF
  3. DKIM
  4. DMARC

Answer: B

Explanation:

SPF (Sender Policy Framework) is the mechanism used to verify whether a sending mail server’s IP address is authorized to send email on behalf of a specific domain. SPF works through a DNS record (typically a TXT record) published by the domain owner. When a receiving mail server gets an email claiming to be from a domain, it checks the SPF record for that domain and compares the source IP of the sending server against the list of permitted IP addresses or permitted sending services. If the IP is listed (or matches an allowed range/mechanism), SPF passes; if not, SPF fails. This directly matches the question requirement: “verify that an emailer is allowed and designated to send emails from a particular IP address.”

The other options do not focus on authorizing an IP to send mail. DKIM uses cryptographic signatures to verify message integrity and that the message was signed by a domain’s private key, not to authorize a sending IP. DMARC is a policy framework that tells receivers what to do when SPF and/or DKIM fail and adds alignment rules and reporting. CNAME is a DNS alias record and is not an email authorization control. Therefore, the correct answer is SPF.

Question: 371

A user’s new computer is exhibiting issues after a couple hours of use. The screen freezes and typed characters do not appear for several seconds, if at all. The computer unexpectedly restarts while the user is reading an email. A technician runs diagnostics and verifies that no components show any errors. All hardware meets or exceeds recommendations. Which of the following should the technician do next?

  1. Check for swollen capacitors.
  2. Replace the power supply with a higher wattage rating.
  3. Increase the amount of RAM.
  4. Change the CMOS battery.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Intermittent freezing followed by unexpected restarts after the system has been running for a while often points to a hardware stability problem that worsens with heat and time, rather than an immediate configuration or “not enough resources” issue. When diagnostics show no errors, the next CompTIA A+-style step is to look for physical signs of failing components. Swollen or leaking capacitors on the motherboard or in the power delivery area can cause unstable voltage regulation as the system warms up, leading to input lag, lockups, and spontaneous reboots even during light tasks like reading email. A visual inspection can quickly confirm this failure mode and is an appropriate next troubleshooting action when software and basic diagnostics are inconclusive.

Replacing the power supply with a higher wattage is not the best next step because the workload described is not high draw, and the symptom is not clearly tied to peak load; if a PSU is suspect, the usual step is testing with a known-good PSU of correct specs, not simply “higher wattage.” Increasing RAM is unnecessary because the system meets requirements and this would more commonly cause persistent slowness, not sudden restarts. A CMOS battery issue typically causes time resets or BIOS setting loss, not freezing and random reboots after hours.

Question: 372

A manager wants to ensure that employees can only pick up their own printouts. Which of the following accomplishes this objective? Select two.

  1. PCL
  2. Tray selection
  3. Duplex setting
  4. User PIN
  5. RFID
  6. USB

Answer: D,E

Explanation:

To ensure employees only pick up their own printouts, the printer must use an authentication-based release method so jobs are not immediately printed into the output tray where anyone can take them. A User PIN enables secure or “held” printing: the job is sent to the printer but remains stored in the printer’s queue until the user walks up to the device and enters the correct PIN on the control panel. Only after successful PIN entry does the printer release and print that specific job, preventing accidental or unauthorized pickup of sensitive documents.

RFID supports badge-based authentication and is commonly used with secure print release systems in offices. Users tap an RFID badge at the printer to authenticate, and then the printer releases only the authenticated user’s queued print jobs. This is convenient and reduces the chance of users sharing PINs, while still enforcing that jobs are released only when the correct user is physically present.

PCL is a printer language, tray selection and duplex are print settings, and USB is a connection method—none of these enforce user-specific job release. Therefore, the correct answers are User PIN and RFID.

Question: 373

A technician needs to run cable for a new office through a drop ceiling. Which of the following cable types should the technician run?

  1. BNC
  2. Fiber-optic
  3. Coaxial
  4. Plenum

Answer: D

Explanation:

When running network cable through a drop ceiling, the space above the ceiling is often used as part of the building’s air circulation system (an air return). In these plenum spaces, building and fire safety standards require cable jackets that produce less smoke and fewer toxic fumes if exposed to heat or fire. Plenum-rated cable is manufactured with a special fire-resistant jacket designed for these environments, making it the correct choice for safe and compliant cabling runs in ceilings and other air-handling areas. This is a key CompTIA A+ Core 1 concept: selecting the proper cable rating based on where the cable is installed to reduce safety hazards and meet code requirements.

The other options do not match the requirement. BNC is a connector type commonly associated with older coaxial networking and certain video applications, not a cable rating for ceiling installations.

Coaxial is a cable type used for cable internet and some video signals, but the question is specifically about the required type for a drop ceiling environment, which is about the jacket rating. Fiber-optic is used for high-speed backbone links and long distances, but the question is focused on safety/installation requirements in a ceiling space. Therefore, plenum is the best answer.

Question: 374

A business purchases a computer with a built-in WWAN card. Which of the following technologies does the computer’s WWAN card support?

  1. SIM
  2. NFC
  3. Bluetooth
  4. Wi-Fi

Answer: A

Explanation:

A WWAN card provides cellular wide-area network connectivity (such as LTE or 5G) for a laptop, allowing it to access mobile data networks similar to a smartphone. To authenticate to a cellular carrier and identify the subscriber account, WWAN devices typically use a SIM (Subscriber Identity Module) or an embedded SIM. The SIM contains carrier subscription information and security credentials used during registration on the cellular network. Without a valid SIM or eSIM profile, the WWAN radio may be present, but it cannot complete carrier authentication and will not provide cellular data service.

The other options are different wireless technologies that are not the defining requirement for WWAN service. Wi-Fi is WLAN connectivity, usually provided by a separate Wi-Fi adapter. Bluetooth is a short-range personal area networking technology for peripherals and tethering. NFC is very short-range communication used mainly for tap-to-pair or payments. Therefore, the technology a built-in WWAN card supports in this context is SIM.

Question: 375

Which of the following cables can carry a video signal?

  1. MicroUSB
  2. USB-A
  3. MiniUSB
  4. USB-C

Answer: D

Explanation:

USB-C can carry a video signal because the USB-C connector supports Alternate Modes, most commonly DisplayPort Alt Mode, which allows the cable and port to transmit video (and often audio) to an external display. Many modern laptops, tablets, and phones use USB-C to output video to monitors, TVs, and docks. In addition, some USB-C ports support Thunderbolt (depending on the device), which can also carry display signals along with data and power. This makes USB-C a versatile “single-cable” solution for charging, data transfer, and external display connectivity—an important concept in CompTIA A+ Core 1 when identifying connector capabilities and choosing the correct cable type.

The other options are not the best answer for standard video output in typical PC support scenarios.

USB-A is a common data connector but does not natively carry a direct video signal like HDMI or DisplayPort (it would require an adapter that converts USB data to video). Micro USB and Mini USB were mainly designed for data and charging on older devices; while certain proprietary/legacy implementations existed, they are not the primary, modern, or expected video-carrying cable type in A+ objectives. Therefore, USB-C is the correct choice.

Question: 376

A technician must install additional RAM in a desktop computer. Which of the following types of RAM will the technician most likely use?

  1. Static
  2. ECC
  3. DIMM
  4. Registered

Answer: C

Explanation:

Desktop computers most commonly use DIMM modules (Dual Inline Memory Module) for system memory. DIMMs are the standard full-size RAM sticks installed in desktop motherboard memory slots and are available in modern DDR generations such as DDR4 and DDR5. CompTIA A+ Core 1 expects you to distinguish common form factors: desktops use DIMM, while laptops typically use SODIMM (Small Outline DIMM).

The other options are either specialized memory types or not the typical “type” used to describe desktop installation. Static refers to SRAM (static RAM), which is used for CPU cache and other internal high-speed buffers, not for installing system RAM modules in a desktop. ECC (Error Correcting Code) memory is used mainly in servers/workstations where data integrity is critical and requires motherboard/CPU support; it is not the most likely choice for a typical desktop upgrade.

Registered (buffered) memory is also primarily for servers and compatible platforms, improving stability with large memory configurations but not common in standard desktops. Therefore, the best answer for typical desktop RAM installation is DIMM.

Question: 377

After a laptop screen has been replaced, the laptop is having Wi-Fi connectivity issues. No SSIDs are discovered. Bluetooth and Ethernet are working. Which of the following should a technician investigate first?

  1. Wireless card
  2. Wireless antenna
  3. Wireless AP
  4. Network interface card
  5. Motherboard

Answer: B

Explanation:

When a laptop screen is replaced, the technician typically removes the display assembly components and works near the hinge area where the Wi-Fi antenna leads are routed. In most laptops, the Wi-Fi antennas are built into the display bezel and connect to the wireless adapter using thin coax cables labeled MAIN/AUX. If one or both antenna leads are left disconnected, pinched, or not fully seated during reassembly, the Wi-Fi adapter may still appear in the OS, but the radio signal strength becomes extremely weak. A common symptom is no SSIDs found or only very close/strong networks intermittently.

Bluetooth working does not rule this out because Bluetooth can have separate antennas or may still function at short range even when Wi-Fi reception is poor. Ethernet working confirms general network access and suggests the issue is isolated to the Wi-Fi radio path rather than the router, ISP, or OS networking stack. The wireless access point is unlikely to be the cause if the issue started immediately after hardware service and other devices can see SSIDs. Therefore, the first hardware check should be the wireless antenna connections and routing.

Question: 378

Which of the following cloud delivery models should an organization choose when it requires ownership of all physical hardware?

  1. Hybrid cloud
  2. Private cloud
  3. Public cloud
  4. IaaS
  5. PaaS

Answer: B

Explanation:

A private cloud is the best choice when an organization requires ownership and control of all physical hardware. In CompTIA A+ terms, a private cloud is a cloud deployment model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and can be implemented on-premises (or hosted for that organization only). If the requirement explicitly states the organization must own the servers, storage, and network equipment, that aligns with a private cloud built and maintained using the organization’s own datacenter resources. This provides greater control over security, compliance, customization, and data governance compared with shared models.

A public cloud is owned and operated by a third-party provider, so the organization does not own the underlying hardware. A hybrid cloud combines private and public components; since part of it relies on provider-owned infrastructure, it does not meet the requirement of owning all physical hardware. IaaS and PaaS are cloud service models (what is consumed), not deployment/delivery models (how it is deployed), and they commonly run on provider-owned hardware as well. Therefore, Private cloud is the correct answer.

Question: 379

Which of the following characteristics is a benefit of cloud computing?

  1. Unmetered use regardless of demand fluctuations
  2. Centralized location for all global data
  3. On-demand, self-service capabilities
  4. Limited access via custom interfaces

Answer: C

Explanation:

A key benefit and defining characteristic of cloud computing in CompTIA A+ Core 1 is on-demand, self-service. This means users or administrators can quickly provision computing resources—such as virtual machines, storage, or applications—without requiring manual intervention from the cloud provider each time. For example, an organization can deploy a new server instance in minutes to support a new project, then scale it down or remove it when no longer needed. This improves agility, speeds up deployment, and supports rapid changes in workload.

Option A is incorrect because cloud services are typically metered (measured) and billed based on usage, which is part of the “measured service” cloud concept. Option B is incorrect because cloud data is often distributed across multiple regions for redundancy and performance; it is not inherently “centralized for all global data.” Option D is incorrect because cloud services generally emphasize broad network access using standard methods and interfaces, not limited access through custom interfaces only. Therefore, on-demand, self-service capabilities best represents a cloud computing benefit.

Question: 380

A user asks a technician to recommend a CPU upgrade for a desktop computer. Which of the following should the technician consider first?

  1. Core count
  2. Socket type
  3. Bus frequency
  4. Integrated GPU

Answer: B

Explanation:

The first consideration for a desktop CPU upgrade is the socket type, because the processor must be physically and electrically compatible with the motherboard. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 hardware terms, CPUs are designed for specific sockets (for example, Intel LGA or AMD AM-series), and a mismatch means the CPU simply cannot be installed. Even within the same brand, different generations may use different sockets, and the motherboard’s chipset and BIOS/UEFI must also support the selected CPU model. If the socket is wrong, factors like core count, frequency, and integrated graphics become irrelevant because the system will not POST or function.

After confirming socket compatibility, the technician would typically evaluate other constraints such as BIOS/UEFI update requirements, power and cooling (TDP and heatsink/fan capability), and RAM compatibility supported by the platform. Only then do performance-related preferences like core count (multitasking), bus/clock characteristics, or whether an integrated GPU is needed (if no discrete video card is present) become meaningful selection criteria. Therefore, the correct first consideration is the motherboard socket type.

Question: 381

Which of the following controls network traffic based on MAC addresses?

  1. Router
  2. PoE injector
  3. Firewall
  4. Switch

Answer: D

Explanation:

A switch is the network device that controls and forwards traffic primarily based on MAC addresses. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 networking, a switch operates at Layer 2 (Data Link) of the OSI model. When devices communicate on an Ethernet LAN, the switch learns the source MAC addresses from incoming frames and stores them in a MAC address table (CAM table) along with the port where each device is connected. After learning, the switch uses the destination MAC address in each Ethernet frame to decide which specific port should receive the traffic, which reduces unnecessary transmissions and improves overall network efficiency compared to a hub. If the destination MAC is unknown, the switch will flood the frame out other ports (except the one it came in on) until it learns the correct location.

A router makes forwarding decisions using IP addresses at Layer 3, not MAC-based switching decisions. A PoE injector only supplies electrical power over Ethernet and does not manage traffic forwarding. A firewall filters traffic based on rules (IP, ports, protocols, and sometimes application/state), but the classic CompTIA A+ answer for MAC-based traffic control on a LAN is a switch.

Question: 382

An end user wants to share their cellular internet connection with their laptop. Which of the following technologies should they use?

  1. Hotspot
  2. Bluetooth
  3. NFC
  4. Ethernet

Answer: A

Explanation:

To share a phone’s cellular data connection with a laptop, the user should use a hotspot, also known as mobile hotspot or Wi-Fi tethering. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 terms, this feature allows a smartphone to act like a small wireless router: it takes the phone’s mobile data (4G/5G) connection and rebroadcasts it over Wi-Fi so another device (the laptop) can join the wireless network using an SSIDand password. This is the most common and straightforward method because laptops universally support Wi-Fi and the connection typically provides better throughput than other tethering methods.

Hotspot/tethering settings also commonly allow configuration of security (WPA2/WPA3) and can limit connected devices to reduce unauthorized access and manage data usage. Bluetooth (option B) can support tethering on some devices, but it is slower, more limited, and not the primary expected answer when the goal is simply sharing cellular internet with a laptop. NFC (option C) is mainly used for close-range pairing or payments and does not provide an internet sharing link by itself. Ethernet (option D) would require wired adapters and is not the standard method for cellular sharing. Therefore, Hotspot is the best answer.

Question: 383

A company wants to get the fastest network speeds possible between nearby locations. If all technologies are available, which of the following connection types should the company use?

  1. Fiber
  2. DSL
  3. Satellite
  4. Coaxial

Answer: A

Explanation:

Fiber is the best option when the goal is the fastest possible network speeds between nearby locations. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 networking, fiber-optic cabling (single-mode or multimode) provides the highest bandwidth capacity and supports very high data rates over longer distances compared with copper media. Fiber is also highly resistant to electromagnetic interference (EMI) because it transmits data as light rather than electrical signals, which improves reliability and signal quality—especially in environments with motors, fluorescent lighting, or other sources of interference. For nearby locations (such as buildings on the same campus), fiber is commonly used for backbone links and uplinks between switches because it delivers excellent throughput and can scale to higher speeds as equipment is upgraded.

DSL is limited by telephone-line quality and distance from the provider’s equipment, and it is typically much slower than fiber. Satellite has higher latency and is not chosen when maximum speed and low delay are required. Coaxial can support broadband and some high-speed links, but it generally offers less bandwidth, more susceptibility to noise than fiber, and is not the top choice for highest-speed interconnection when fiber is available.

Question: 384

A user’s laptop monitor dims every evening. The user manually adjusts the screen setting but wants a permanent solution. Which of the following settings should a technician change to prevent the issue?

  1. Ambient light
  2. Battery
  3. Graphics
  4. Scheduled tasks

Answer: A

Explanation:

The most likely cause of a laptop screen dimming consistently in the evening is an ambient light/adaptive brightness feature. Many laptops include an ambient light sensor that automatically changes screen brightness based on room lighting conditions. As natural light decreases later in the day, the sensor detects a darker environment and reduces brightness to save power and reduce eye  strain. Because this behavior occurs at a predictable time (evening) and the user can temporarily correct it by manually increasing brightness, it strongly points to automatic brightness control rather than a hardware failure.

Changing the Ambient light setting (disabling adaptive brightness/auto-brightness) provides a permanent fix by preventing the system from adjusting brightness in response to lighting changes.

While battery/power plans can also dim displays to conserve energy, that usually correlates with running on battery power or specific power-saving modes—not a consistent evening pattern.

Graphics settings typically affect resolution, scaling, or driver features and are not the primary control for time-of-day dimming behavior. Scheduled tasks could theoretically run display-related scripts, but that is uncommon compared to built-in ambient light adaptation. Therefore, adjusting the ambient light/adaptive brightness setting is the best CompTIA A+ answer.

Question: 385

Which of the following devices can handle large volumes of data and uses flash memory?

  1. SSD
  2. DVD-RW
  3. HDD
  4. Tape

Answer: A

Explanation:

An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is the correct choice because it stores data using flash memory (NAND) and is commonly available in large capacities suitable for operating systems, applications, and mass storage. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 terms, SSDs contain no moving parts, which makes them faster and more reliable than mechanical drives for many workloads. They provide significantly improved read/write performance, lower latency, reduced heat output, and better shock resistance— important for both desktops and especially laptops. SSDs are also widely used in modern systems via SATA or NVMe (PCIe) interfaces, with NVMe offering the highest performance for large data transfers.

The other options do not match “flash memory”: DVD-RW is optical media with limited capacity and slower speeds, intended for removable storage rather than large-volume primary storage. An HDD can store large volumes of data but uses magnetic platters and moving heads, not flash memory.

Tape is also magnetic media, typically used for backups and archival storage, and while it can store large amounts, it does not use flash and is designed for sequential access rather than fast random access. Therefore, SSD is the best answer.

Question: 386

An IT specialist is setting up a new shared network printer. The printer will receive a pre-allocated IP address via DHCP. Attempting to connect to the printer’s web interface produces a Page not found message. The specialist runs diagnostics and finds that the IP is different than expected. Which of the following should the specialist check next?

  1. The MAC address used in the reservation
  2. The printer driver on the print server
  3. The subnet mask that the printer is using
  4. The default gateway in the address pool

Answer: A

Explanation:

When a device is supposed to receive a specific “pre-allocated” address from DHCP, that typically means a DHCP reservation has been created. DHCP reservations work by mapping a specific MAC address to a chosen IP address so that when that exact device requests an address, the DHCP server always hands it the reserved IP. If diagnostics show the printer received a different IP than expected, the most likely cause is that the reservation is not being applied—commonly because the reservation references the wrong MAC address (typo, using the wrong interface, or copying the MAC of another port such as Wi-Fi vs Ethernet). Verifying the printer’s actual MAC address and matching it to the DHCP reservation is the correct next step.

The printer driver on the print server (B) affects printing functionality, not the printer’s DHCP assignment or ability to browse its embedded web server. Subnet mask (C) and default gateway in the pool (D) could cause connectivity issues, but they would not usually explain why the device received an unexpected IP when a reservation was intended. The key mismatch symptom points first to the MAC address in the reservation.

Question: 387

A technician is working on a high-end gaming computer that was built several years ago. The customer reports that the system will work OK for a short time, but then the system performs slowly until it finally locks up and turns off. Which of the following should the technician check first?

  1. Voltage input and output from the power supply
  2. Fan speed and airflow through the heat sinks
  3. Memory channel configuration and CAS timings
  4. File fragmentation on the HDD

Answer: B

Explanation:

The best answer is B. Fan speed and airflow through the heat sinks. The symptoms strongly indicate overheating: the computer works normally at first, slows down as heat builds up, then locks up and powers off to protect the CPU/GPU and motherboard. The Quentin Doctor study guide states that a

PC that works for a few minutes and then locks up is probably overheating because a heat sink or fan is not functioning properly, and the first troubleshooting step is to check all internal fans and ensure the heat sinks are properly attached. High-end gaming systems are especially heat-sensitive because CPUs and dedicated graphics cards generate substantial heat under load. The same section notes that CPUs are common overheating sources and video cards are also very susceptible in gaming or graphics-heavy systems. Power supply testing is useful for intermittent power problems, but the gradual slowdown before shutdown points more directly to thermal throttling and heat buildup than voltage failure.

Question: 388

A technician needs to build a computer that can tolerate high CPU utilization and graphics usage.

Which of the following components provides the best benefit for the computer?

  1. Liquid cooling
  2. Advanced RISC
  3. x86 processor
  4. Hardware security module

Answer: A

Explanation:

The best answer is A. Liquid cooling. A system designed for sustained high CPU utilization and heavy graphics usage needs strong thermal management. The study guide explains that the CPU is one of the greatest cooling challenges in a computer and that modern processors require active cooling. It also notes that high-performance CPU coolers use large heat sinks, high-CFM fans, and better heat transfer methods to dissipate processor heat. Liquid cooling is specifically listed as a CPU cooling method and is described as using a water block to conduct heat away from the processor and circulate it to a radiator for cooling. The Mike Meyers material also explains that liquid cooling is useful for systems that are overclocked or need quieter, stronger cooling. Advanced RISC and x86 describe CPU architecture, not a cooling improvement. A hardware security module protects cryptographic keys and does not help with CPU/GPU heat or performance stability.

Question: 389

A company rolls out a mandatory OS update to all PCs. A legacy application that one department uses does not function on the new OS and is end-of-life. Which of the following should a technician suggest to solve the issue with minimal data loss, expense, and disruption to the users?

  1. Setting up a bare-metal hypervisor to isolate the outdated OS
  2. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor
  3. Upgrading to an alternative product and importing the data
  4. Uploading the database to a private cloud

Answer: B

Explanation:

The best answer is B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor. The issue is application compatibility after an OS update. The Quentin Doctor study guide explains that application virtualization is commonly used for legacy software or a legacy OS because older applications often run only on older operating systems. It further explains that virtualization allows users to run multiple environments without buying extra hardware, which directly matches the requirement for minimal cost and disruption. A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing host operating system, making it suitable for a department workstation scenario because users can keep the new supported OS while accessing the legacy application in a virtualized environment. A bare metal Type 1 hypervisor is usually server-side and would be more disruptive and expensive.

Migrating to a new product and importing data may be the long-term answer, but it introduces higher cost, retraining, and possible data loss. A private cloud does not solve OS compatibility by itself.

Question: 390

A computer runs normally for several minutes, gradually runs slower, and then shuts down without warning. Which of the following resolves this issue?

  1. Upgrading the memory
  2. Replacing the fans
  3. Adding drive space
  4. Swapping the power supply

Answer: B

Explanation:

The best answer is B. Replacing the fans. The key clue is the sequence: normal operation, gradual slowdown, and then sudden shutdown. That pattern is typical of overheating. As temperature rises, modern CPUs and GPUs may throttle performance to reduce heat; if cooling remains inadequate, the system may lock up or shut down to prevent damage. The Quentin Doctor study guide specifically states that overheating components may cause intermittent shutdowns and that a PC working for a few minutes and then locking up is probably experiencing a heat sink or fan problem. It recommends checking all fans and heat sinks first. The study guide also notes that motherboards often include CPU heat and fan sensors that can shut the computer down before damage occurs if active cooling fails. Upgrading RAM or adding drive space could improve some performance issues, but they would not usually cause a heat-related shutdown. A failing power supply can cause shutdowns, but the gradual slowdown before power-off makes fan/cooling failure the better match.

Question: 391

A technician needs to replace a laptop’s display assembly. Which of the following should the technician do to complete this task?

  1. Reattach the heat sinks
  2. Reconnect the wireless antennas
  3. Install a new CPU fan
  4. Reset the BIOS to default settings

Answer: B

Explanation:

The best answer is B. Reconnect the wireless antennas. Laptop display assemblies commonly contain more than just the screen. The Quentin Doctor study guide explains that laptop display components may include the display panel, webcam, microphone, inverter, and Wi-Fi antenna. It also states that Wi-Fi antenna wiring is generally routed through the upper half of the clamshell case, down through the hinge, and to the motherboard or wireless NIC. During display assembly removal, the technician disconnects the wireless NIC, display cable, and touch-screen cable, and the guide notes that the NIC antenna wires travel with the display assembly. Therefore, after replacing the display assembly, reconnecting the wireless antennas is a required step to restore wireless functionality. Reattaching heat sinks and installing a CPU fan relate to CPU cooling, not display replacement. Resetting BIOS defaults is unrelated unless a firmware setting caused a specific issue, which is not indicated here. The display assembly procedure directly supports reconnecting the antenna wiring.

Question: 392

A user cannot access any local or remote resources. A technician runs a command to find the configuration information and gets the following results:

IPv4 Address: 192.168.1.10

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0

Default Gateway: 192.168.2.1

The technician checks with the NOC, and it verifies that the upstream router is configured correctly. The next hop given to the technician matches the value in the output. Which of the following should the technician change in order for the user’s connection to work fully?

  1. DNS settings
  2. Gateway
  3. Lease time
  4. Firewall rules
  5. Subnet mask

Answer: E

Explanation:

The best answer is E. Subnet mask. With the current subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, the user’s IP address 192.168.1.10 is on the 192.168.1.0/24 network, while the default gateway 192.168.2.1 is on the 192.168.2.0/24 network. A host normally needs its default gateway to be reachable on the same local network. The Mike Meyers material explains that the subnet mask identifies the network ID and host ID, and every computer on a single LAN must have the same network ID. With 255.255.255.0, the first three octets define the network, so 192.168.1.x and 192.168.2.x are different networks. The NOC verified that the gateway value itself is correct, so changing the gateway would conflict with the verified next hop. DNS settings would affect name resolution, not access to all local and remote resources. Lease time and firewall rules are not indicated by the IP information. The subnet mask must be changed so the client and gateway are in the same local IP network.

Question: 393

SIMULATION

A small ISP has hired a new technician Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure customers* home networks The trailing instructor gives me technician a starter kit with cables, cable ends, and other network equipment and asks mm to build a working network.

The computer should be connected to have internet connectivity and the phone should be connected to have a dial tone.

INSTRUCTIONS

Use the appropriate cables. cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network ana connect an components accordingly

There are 3 steps and the simulation starts on step 1.

Answer: See the answer below in explanation part.

Explanation:

Answer of both steps below.

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Question: 394

SIMULATION

A technician is installing a wireless access point and is required to run all cabling and make patch cords if necessary.

INSTRUCTIONS

Part 1

For each cable type, click the (+) to select the appropriate connector and tool.

An access point was moved and no longer has connectivity. Connect the access point, patch panel, and switch by clicking the (+) to select the appropriate cable end for each corresponding location to create a link.

The link will be visible after making the second selection of each pair.

Cable ends may be used multiple times, and all placeholders will be filled.

Answer: See the solution below in

Explanation:

Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.

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Part 2

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Question: 395

SIMULATION

A user reports poor performance on the application server.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review the information presented in each chart to determine which drives need to be replaced.

Select the appropriate replacement drive that should be used, for the least performance degradation to the server.

Answer: See the detailed solution in explanation below.

Explanation:

The degraded status on Server 2 indicates a RAID-5 issue, typically due to a failed or failing drive. In RAID-5 configurations, when one drive fails, the system can still operate but with reduced performance as parity data is used to rebuild missing data on-the-fly.

Recommended Replacement Drive:

To minimize performance degradation, the replacement drive should be: SAS HDD with the same specifications (64KB stripe size, no read-ahead, and write-back policy).

Matching the configuration exactly ensures seamless integration and optimizes recovery speed in the RAID-5 array.

In RAID-5, degraded performance is expected when one drive fails, as parity data needs to rebuild missing information during each read/write process. Replacing the failed drive restores the RAID array to optimal status, reducing the load on existing drives and returning the system to normal read/write performance. The write-back policy and disabled disk cache settings are designed to reduce latency and increase efficiency, essential for handling real-time applications.

A user reports poor performance on the application server.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review

the information presented in each chart to

determine which drives need to be replaced.

Select the appropriate replacement drive

that should be used, for the least

performance degradation to the server.

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Question: 396

HOTSPOT

A technician is diagnosing several device issues reported by employees.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on each device to review the issue. Then select the appropriate issue and solution from the drop-down menu. Each option may be used more than once.

Answer:

Explanation:

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Question: 397

SIMULATION

A third-party contractor recently installed a new switch, router, and cabling for a small corporate office. After the installation, users started experiencing issues connecting to resources over the network.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on each PC and server to review outputs. From the remediation section on

the right, select an issue and solution for each device.

Answer: See the Explanation and detailed steps below.

Explanation:

Looking at the network configurations and outputs from both PCs and servers, here are the possible issues and solutions:

  1. PC 1

Issue: The IP address for PC1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with Server 1 (which also uses 192.168.1.1).

Solution: Change the IP address on PC1 to a unique one within the range, like 192.168.1.3.

  1. PC 2

Issue: PC 2 is configured with 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with Server 2 that has the same IP address.

Solution: Update the IP address on PC 2 to something unique, like 192.168.1.4.

  1. Server 1

Issue: The IP address for Server 1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with PC1.

Solution: Since Server 1 and PC1 are using the same IP address, change one of them. For Server 1, you could change the IP address to 192.168.1.5.

  1. Server 2

Issue: Server 2 is using the IP address 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with PC2.

Solution: Update Server 2 to use a different IP address, such as 192.168.1.6.

General Remediation:

The primary problem here is overlapping IP addresses, leading to connectivity issues. Each device on the network must have a unique IP address. After making these changes, ensure that all devices can communicate properly by testing the connection between devices and verifying they can access shared resources.

Question: 398

HOTSPOT

A customer has contacted you about building two new desktops. The first desktop will be a gaming workstation. The customer requirements include:

Playing the newest games at a high frame rate

Fast game load times

Enough storage to have several games installed at once

High-end audio

No concern about cost

Running the current Windows OS

The second workstation will be a family workstation. The requirements include:

Capability for word processing, videoconferencing, and basic web surfing

Minimal cost, as long as it meets the requirements

Running the current Windows OS

Answer:

Explanation:

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Question: 399

HOTSPOT

An office manager reports that a printer is experiencing performance issues. Printouts are smudging when they are handled, and, recently whenever they need to print legal sized documents, the paper jams before anything is printed on it.

The following paper sizes are used:

Letter (8.5x11in/21.59×27.94cm)

Legal (8.5x14in/21.59×35.56cm)

Oversized (11x17in/27.94×43.18cm)

INSTRUCTIONS

Using the dropdown menus, select from the available printer parts to replace only the faulty components on the office printer to resolve the stated issues.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Answer:

Explanation:

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Question: 400

SIMULATION

Laura, a customer, has instructed you to configure her home office wireless access point.

She plans to use the wireless network for finances and has requested that the network be setup with the highest encryption possible.

Additionally, Laura knows that her neighbors have wireless networks and wants to ensure that her network is not being interfered with by the other networks.

She requests that the default settings be changed to the following.

Wireless Name: HomeWiFi

Shared Key: CompTIA

Router Password: Secure$1

Finally, Laura wants to ensure that only her laptop and Smartphone can connect to the network.

Laptop: IP Address 192.168.1.100

Hardware Address: 00:0A:BF:03:C4:54

Smartphone: IP Address 192.168.1.101

Hardware Address: 09:2C:D0:22:3F:11

INSTRUCTIONS

Configure Laura’s wireless network using the network adapter window.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the situation, please click the Reset All button.

Answer: See the explanation below

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