Question: 1
A technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue on a network computer. The technician runs ipconfig in a command prompt and receives the following IP address:169.254.0.6. Which of the following is most likely the type of IP address being assigned?
A. DHCP reservation assignment
B. Dynamic assignment
C. Self-assignment
D. Static assignment
Answer: C
Explanation:
An IP address starting with169.254.x.xis a self-assigned address(also called APIPA– Automatic Private IP Addressing). It’s used when a client device cannot contact a DHCP server. This address allows limited communication on the local network segment but no internet access.
Option A:DHCP reservations assign specific IPs from the DHCP server they don’t result in APIPA.
Option B:Dynamic assignment from DHCP assigns valid IPs in the proper subnet, not 169.254.x.x.
Option D:Static IPs are manually set and would not fall in the 169.254.x.x range unless set incorrectly.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, configure and troubleshoot network connectivity.
Question: 2
A recently installed printer is incorrectly aligning printed documents. Which of the following should the technician do first to fix this issue?
A. Run the maintenance application.
B. Clean the rollers
C. Upgrade the firmware
D. Reinstall the drivers
Answer: A
Explanation:
A . Run the maintenance application:
Most modern printers include a built-in maintenance application that can calibrate the print heads and correct alignment issues. Running this tool is the first step to address misalignment.
Incorrect Options:
B . Clean the rollers: Cleaning rollers is typically done to resolve paper feed or jamming issues, not alignment problems.
C . Upgrade the firmware: While updating firmware is beneficial for performance improvements, it is not the first step for fixing alignment.
D . Reinstall the drivers: Misaligned printing is usually hardware-related, not a driver issue.
Key Takeaway: The maintenance application should be run first to resolve alignment issues in a newly installed printer.
Question: 3
An IT specialist compares Bluetooth and NFC technologies for mobile device connectivity. Which of the following statements accurately describes a key difference between the two?
A. NFC is faster than Bluetooth when transferring large files between devices.
B. NFC consumes more power than Bluetooth, making it less suitable for devices in which battery conservation is crucial.
C. NFC requires pairing with the receiving host, whereas Bluetooth just needs the available connection.
D. NFC works best within a few centimeters, but Bluetooth can connect devices that are up to 32ft (10m) apart.
Answer: D
Explanation:
NFC (Near-Field Communication)operates at very short ranges usually less than 4cm, and is ideal for quick, secure transactions like contactless payments. Bluetooth supports longer ranges (up to 10 meters or 32 feet)and is suited for ongoing connections like wireless headsets or file transfers.
Option A: Bluetooth is faster for large file transfers.
Option B: NFC uses less power, not more.
Option C: NFC does not require pairing Bluetooth does.
Question: 4
Which of the following is an advantage of using VDI?
A. Authentication is not required on a domain.
B. Licensing costs are minimized.
C. Less manual configuration is needed for each workstation.
D. A virus is automatically contained locally.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)hosts desktop environments on centralized servers.
This allows rapid deployment and consistent configuration across multiple users, minimizing manual setup and easing IT management.
Option A:VDI still uses standard authentication methods.
Option B:Licensing can actually be more expensive due to virtualization software and backend servers.
Option D:VDI centralizes the desktop environment viruses would affect the virtual session, not be “contained locally.”
Question: 5
A technician wants to monitor network statistics for devices communicating with one another on the local subnet. Which of the following devices should the technician install.
A. Managed switch
B. Router
C. Access point
D. Firewall
Answer: A
Explanation:
A managed switch provides advanced features such as traffic monitoring and VLAN configuration, allowing a technician to view network statistics for devices on the local subnet.
Why Not B (Router): A router connects different networks and directs traffic between them but does not provide detailed subnet-level statistics.
Why Not C (Access point): Access points provide wireless connectivity but lack traffic monitoring features.
Why Not D (Firewall): A firewall filters traffic but is not used for monitoring detailed statistics on a local subnet.
Question: 6
Which of the following provides electricity to devices through network cables?
A. Edge router
B. PoE switch
C. Access point
D. Patch panel
Answer: B
Explanation:
A PoE (Power over Ethernet) switch transmits both data and electrical power over Ethernet cables to devices like wireless access points or VoIP phones. This is especially useful in areas where separate power sources are not available.
Question: 7
Which of the following DNS record types is used to direct email to a mail server?
A. CNAME
B. SRV
C. MX
D. SOA
Answer: C
Explanation:
An MX (Mail Exchange) record specifies the mail server responsible for receiving email for a domain.
Why Not A (CNAME): CNAME is used for domain aliasing, not for email delivery.
Why Not B (SRV): SRV records are used to locate specific services, not mail servers.
Why Not D (SOA): SOA records provide domain information but do not handle email.
Question: 8
Which of the following cloud models exclusively utilizes a local data center?
A. Private
B. Public
C. Hybrid
D. Community
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Private Cloud is operated solely for a single organization. It is hosted on-premises or in a dedicated off-site data center, giving the company full control over data, security, and compliance often hosted in the organization’s own local data center.
Option B (Public):Hosted by third-party providers and shared by multiple clients.
Option C (Hybrid):Combines private and public cloud resources.
Option D (Community):Shared by several organizations with similar goals.
Question: 9
Which of the following types of RAM is typically used in servers?
A. SODIMM
B. Rambus
C. DDR3
D. ECC
Answer: D
Explanation:
ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers to provide error detection and correction, improving reliability in critical systems. It is designed to detect and correct single-bit errors, ensuring data integrity in environments where stability is paramount.
Option A (SODIMM): Incorrect. SODIMM is typically used in laptops, not servers.
Option B (Rambus): Incorrect. Rambus is an outdated RAM type and not commonly used today.
Option C (DDR3): Incorrect. While DDR3 is a type of RAM, it is not specific to servers and does not provide error correction.
Question: 10
A user is unable to access secure applications on their tablet when working from home a couple days per week, but the applications work when in the office. Which of the following services most likely needs to be reconfigured to allow for remote work?
A. Global Positioning System
B. Mobile device management
C. Wi-Fi Protected Access
D. Near-field communication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM)software often controls access to corporate resources based on location, network, or VPN status. If the MDM is not configured to allow access from outside the office or via home networks, the apps may be blocked. This is the most probable cause if apps work only on-premises.
Option A:GPS is used for location services, not access control.
Option C:WPA is a Wi-Fi security protocol, not related to access restrictions.
Option D:NFC enables close-range communication irrelevant to app access.
Question: 11
A user wants to print files from an overseas office using a shared network folder. The user’s laptop has no public-facing internet connectivity. Which of the following can be used to print from the shared network folder?
A. ADF
B. USB
C. PCL
D. SMB
Answer: D
Explanation:
SMB (Server Message Block) is a protocol used to access files and printers over a network, including across shared network folders. It enables the user to access and print files stored remotely on a shared directory.
Option A (ADF):Automatic Document Feeder hardware, not a network protocol.
Option B (USB):Used for direct physical connections, not for printing over networks.
Option C (PCL):Printer Command Language relates to printer drivers, not file sharing or access.
Question: 12
An SAS RAID array has severely degraded and gone offline A systems administrator examines the syslog, and the point of failure is not obvious. Which of the following techniques should the administrator use to identify the issue (Select two).
A. Run a magnet over each drive.
B. Check if one of the drives is not level
C. Listen for clicking and grinding noises
D. Check the OS logs
E. Update the RAID controller firmware.
F. Check the historical SMART data
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
Clicking and grinding noises indicate mechanical drive failure.
SMART data provides insights into the health and status of drives, helping identify failing components in the RAID array.
Why Not A (Run a magnet): This would damage drives.
Why Not B (Check if one drive is not level): Physical leveling is irrelevant.
Why Not D (Check OS logs): OS logs may provide limited information for RAID arrays.
Why Not E (Update RAID controller firmware): While important, it does not diagnose drive failure.
Question: 13
A user reports that a software application functioned as expected the previous day, but this morning, the user is unable to launch the application. Which of the following describe what the technician should do next?
A. Research the symptoms
B. Identify any changes the user has made
C. Determine which steps need to be performed.
D. Check the vendor’s website for guidance.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Identifying changes made to the system is the next step to troubleshoot why an application no longer
launches, as recent changes often cause such issues.
Why Not A (Research the symptoms): Research is broader and should come after identifying changes.
Why Not C (Determine which steps need to be performed): This comes after identifying the issue.
Why Not D (Check the vendor’s website): This is a later step if further guidance is needed.
Question: 14
A user’s wireless headset shows a “connected” status when turned on, but the Bluetooth list on the user’s phone shows that the headset is “not connected.” Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Enter the PIN.
B. Turn off Wi-Fi.
C. Re-pair the devices.
D. Enable Bluetooth.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a device shows as not connected even though it previously paired, the most effective action is tore-pair the devices. This resets the Bluetooth connection, clears any corruption in pairing profiles, and re-establishes communication.
Option A: Entering a PIN is only relevant during initial pairing and may not be prompted again.
Option B: Turning off Wi-Fi doesn’t typically affect Bluetooth; they operate on similar frequencies but don’t conflict this way in normal use.
Option D: If Bluetooth were disabled, the device wouldn’t appear at all, not just show as “not connected.”
Question: 15
Which of the following connectors can be used to charge most modern mobile devices and may have the capacity to send data audio and video?
A. Lightning
B. USB-C
C. Micro USB
D. Mini USB
Answer: B
Explanation:
B. USB-C: USB-C is a versatile connector that supports charging, high-speed data transfer, and the ability to send audio and video signals (e.g., DisplayPort over USB-
C). It is used by most modern mobile devices and laptops because of its fast transfer speeds and power delivery capabilities.
Incorrect Options:
A . Lightning: Lightning is proprietary to Apple devices and does not natively support video output.
C . Micro USB: Micro USB is outdated and does not support video output.
D . Mini USB: Mini USB is an older standard and does not support modern features like video output or fast charging.
Key Takeaway: USB-C is the most versatile connector for charging and transferring data, audio, and video.
Question: 16
Which of the following DNS records would an administrator change to redirect email flow?
A. MX
B. TXT
C. SPF
D. CNAME
Answer: A
Explanation:
An MX (Mail Exchange)record defines which mail servers are responsible for receiving email for a domain. If you want to change or redirect email traffic, the MX record must be updated with the correct server information.
Option B (TXT):Stores text-based info used for SPF, DKIM, etc.
Option C (SPF):Part of email authentication stored in a TXT record; doesn’t redirect traffic.
Option D (CNAME):Alias for another domain name not used for email routing.
Question: 17
A technician receives a tablet that looks like it has a bulge inside. The bulge is pushing the screen away from the backplate. The tablet still turns on when it is plugged in, but the screen looks damaged and turns off when unplugged. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. Malfunctioning power supply
B. Damaged charge port
C. Deprecated battery
D. Broken screen
Answer: C
Explanation:
A bulging tablet casing is a classic sign of a swollen lithium-ion battery, often caused by age, overheating, or overcharging. This is a dangerous condition, as swollen batteries can rupture or catch fire. It also explains why the tablet only works when plugged in the battery is no longer holding a charge.
Option A:Power supply issues wouldn’t cause physical bulging.
Option B:A bad charge port wouldn’t cause screen damage or physical distortion.
Option D:A broken screen could cause display issues, but not the bulging chassis.
Question: 18
A technician is replacing a failed power supply in a ten-year-old computer When installing the customer-provided power supply, the technician discovers the ATX connector would not plug into the motherboard. The customer wants a cost-effective solution. Which of the following should the technician do next?
A. Adjust the input voltage.
B. Install a modular power supply.
C. Rebuild the failed power supply.
D. Use a 20-pin to 24-pin adapter.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Older motherboards use 20-pin connectors, while newer power supplies use 24-pin connectors. An adapter resolves the compatibility issue cost-effectively.
Why Not A (Adjust the input voltage): Input voltage adjustment is unrelated to connector compatibility.
Why Not B (Install a modular power supply): While modular supplies are versatile, this doesn’t address the connector issue directly.
Why Not C (Rebuild the failed power supply): Rebuilding is costly and complex compared to using an adapter.
Question: 19
A technician is troubleshooting a PoE phone that will not turn on. When a laptop is plugged directly into the switchport for the phone the technician sees a data link LED and activity. Which of the following tools should the technician use to verify PoE availability to the phone?
A. Network tap
B. Cable tester
C. Loopback plug
D. Toner probe
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reasoning: A cable tester capable of testing Power over Ethernet (PoE) functionality can verify whether the switchport is providing the required power to the phone. This tool measures both the presence of data and the voltage or wattage being provided through the Ethernet cable.
This is the most effective way to confirm that PoE is available on the port.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A . Network tap: A network tap is primarily used to monitor network traffic, not to test for PoE availability. It cannot verify if power is being supplied through the Ethernet cable.
C . Loopback plug: A loopback plug is used to test the functionality of a network port by creating a loop for transmitted and received signals. It does not measure or verify PoE availability.
D . Toner probe: A toner probe is used for tracing and identifying network cables. It cannot test for PoE functionality.
Practical Example: A PoE phone might not turn on due to a misconfigured or faulty switchport. Using a cable tester capable of measuring PoE would help the technician determine if the switchport is supplying sufficient power to the phone.
Question: 20
A technician has discovered that some users are connected to a network that is not available on the user interface. Which of the following is the most effective tool the technician can use to identify networks that are not broadcast.
A. Cable tester
B. Toner probe
C. Wi-Fi analyzer
D. Loopback plug
Answer: C
Explanation:
Wi-Fi Analyzer:
A Wi-Fi analyzer is a tool used to detect and analyze wireless networks, even those that are not broadcasting their SSIDs (hidden networks).
It provides detailed information about nearby networks, including signal strength, channel usage, and security protocols.
In this case, the Wi-Fi analyzer can identify the hidden networks that users are connected to, which are not visible on the standard user interface.
Incorrect Options:
A . Cable tester: A cable tester is used to test the integrity of physical network cables. It does not
detect wireless networks or SSIDs.
B . Toner probe: A toner probe is used to trace and identify cables within a wiring system. It is not applicable to wireless network analysis.
D . Loopback plug: A loopback plug is used to test the functionality of a network port or NIC. It is unrelated to identifying hidden wireless networks.
Key Takeaway:
The most effective tool for identifying hidden wireless networks is a Wi-Fi analyzer, as it can detect networks that are not broadcasting their SSIDs.
Question: 21
When installing a network printer, a technician needs to ensure the printer is available after a network is restarted. Which of the following should the technician set up on the printer to meet this requirement?
A. Static IP address
B. Private address
C. Wi-Fi on the printer
D. Dynamic addressing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Assigning astatic IP address to a network printer ensures it always retains the same address, allowing users and print servers to consistently reach it even after a reboot or network refresh.
Option B (Private address):Refers to address ranges (e.g., 192.168.x.x) doesn’t guarantee address persistence.
Option C (Wi-Fi):Is a connection method, not a method of IP assignment.
Option D (Dynamic addressing):Via DHCP, which can change over time unless reservations are made (less reliable).
Question: 22
A user experiences a random BSOD while using a computer, but the operating system recovers as expected Which of the following symptoms would indicate the issue is related to RAM?
A. Wrong BIOS configurations
B. Continuous reboots
C. Distended capacitors
D. POST code beeps
Answer: D
Explanation:
D . POST Code Beeps: During the Power-On Self-Test (POST), the BIOS performs checks on system hardware, including RAM. If the RAM is faulty, POST may produce a series of beep codes indicating memory issues.
These beep codes are often the first sign of RAM-related problems, especially if the BSOD occurs randomly.
Incorrect Options:
A . Wrong BIOS configurations: Incorrect BIOS settings may cause boot errors, but they are less likely to cause random BSODs.
B . Continuous reboots: Continuous reboots could result from multiple hardware or software issues but do not specifically point to RAM.
C . Distended capacitors: Faulty capacitors typically affect the motherboard, not the RAM.
Key Takeaway: POST beep codes are a common diagnostic tool for identifying RAM-related issues.
Question: 23
A technician is troubleshooting internet connectivity issues after a firewall update. Users report that they can access local network resources, such as printers and shares, but cannot access the internet.
Which of the following settings is most likely causing the issue?
A. Static IP assignments
B. Default gateway
C. Subnet mask
D. VLANs
Answer: B
Explanation:
If users can access local network resources but not the internet, the most likely culprit is a misconfigured or missing default gateway. The default gateway routes traffic from the local network to external networks (i.e., the internet). If it’s not properly set or was altered during a firewall update, internet traffic won’t be forwarded correctly.
Option A:Static IPs could cause conflict, but wouldn’t affect only external access if configured correctly.
Option C:An incorrect subnet mask could isolate devices, but local communication would likely be impacted too.
Option D:VLANs segment networks; while misconfigured VLANs could cause access issues, they’d more likely isolate local traffic as well.
Question: 24
Which of the following cable types is the most suitable for delivering 10Gb speeds for distances over 328ft (100m) but under 1,312ft (400m)?
A. Multimode fiber
B. Single-mode fiber
C. Cat 6a
D. Cat 6
Answer: A
Explanation:
When delivering 10Gbps speeds over long distances, fiber optic cables are the best choice. Here’s the breakdown:
A . Multimode Fiber (Correct Answer):
Multimode fiber is designed for relatively short to medium distances (up to 1,312 feet or 400 meters) while supporting high-speed data transfer (10Gbps and above).It uses LED light sources and is cost-effective for environments like data centers or within buildings.
For the specified distance of over 328ft but under 1,312ft, multimode fiber is the most suitable option.
Incorrect Options:
B . Single-mode Fiber: While single-mode fiber supports much greater distances (up to several miles or kilometers) and higher speeds, it is more expensive and unnecessary for the specified range. Single-mode fiber is generally used for long-haul networking or telecommunications.
C . Cat 6a: Cat 6a is capable of 10Gbps speeds but only up to 328ft (100 meters). It cannot reliably handle the specified distance of over 328ft.
D . Cat 6: Cat 6 is also limited to 10Gbps speeds at distances up to 328ft (100 meters). Beyond this range, it is unsuitable.
Key Takeaway:
For delivering 10Gbps speeds over distances longer than 328ft (100m) but under 1,312ft (400m),
Multimode Fiber is the best choice due to its ability to support high-speed data over medium distances at a reasonable cost.
Question: 25
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC that is plugged into a UPS. The PC loses the system date/time after every power outage. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the issue? (Select two).
A. Run a BIOS update.
B. Swap out the RAM.
C. Disable NTP in the OS.
D. Repair the backup power source.
E. Replace the CMOS battery
F. Install a surge protector.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
The system date/time is maintained by the CMOS battery when the PC is powered off. If this battery fails, time resets will occur. Additionally, since the system is connected to a UPS, ensuring the UPS is functioning correctly (i.e., the backup power source) is essential.
Question: 26
A technician receives a S.M.A.R.T. error on a PC. When the technician presses the Esc key, the PC continues to turn on without any further issues. Which of the following should the technician do next?
A. Replace the HDD.
B. Update the PC’s BIOS.
C. Close the ticket.
D. Change the NIC.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology):
S.M.A.R.T. is a monitoring system integrated into modern HDDs and SSDs that detects and reports on various indicators of drive health and reliability.
A S.M.A.R.T. error indicates that the drive is showing signs of impending failure, even if the PC continues to boot and work normally for the time being.
Next Steps:
The appropriate action is to replace the hard drive (HDD) because a S.M.A.R.T. error is an early warning of possible hardware failure. Ignoring the warning could result in data loss if the drive fails completely.
The technician should also back up the user’s data immediately to avoid losing critical information.
Incorrect Options:
B . Update the PC’s BIOS: While keeping the BIOS updated is a good practice, it does not address the S .M.A.R.T. error, which is specific to the HDD.
C . Close the ticket: Closing the ticket without resolving the issue would be improper, as the
S.M.A.R.T. error is a hardware problem that needs to be addressed to prevent future data loss or downtime.
D . Change the NIC: The NIC (Network Interface Card) is unrelated to the storage system and would not resolve a S.M.A.R.T. error.
Key Takeaway:
A S.M.A.R.T. error is a critical indicator of HDD health issues, and the drive should be replaced as soon as possible. Backing up data is also essential.
Question: 27
A company deploys server machines in a public cloud. Which of the following cloud service models is this an example of?
A. Platform as a service
B. Anything as a service
C. Infrastructure as a service
D. Software as a service
Answer: C
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. This includes virtual servers, storage, and networking. Deploying server machines falls under IaaS since the organization is responsible for managing the OS and applications on top of the infrastructure.
Question: 28
Which of the following drive interfaces is typically used in server systems but not in home computers?
A. NVMe
B. SAS
C. ASATA
D. PCIe
Answer: B
Explanation:
SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is a high-performance drive interface commonly found in enterprise environments and servers due to its reliability and speed. While SATA is more common in consumer systems, SAS is specifically designed for mission-critical applications, offering features like full-duplex operation and compatibility with SATA drives.
Question: 29
A technician is installing a new high-end graphics card that uses a 12VHPWR connector. Which of the following is the maximum wattage supported by this power connector?
A. 400W
B. MOW
C. 600W
D. 700W
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 12VHPWR connector can supply up to 600 watts of power, designed for high-end graphics cards.
Why Not A (400W): This is less than the connector’s maximum capability.
Why Not B (MOW): This is an invalid option.
Why Not D (700W): The maximum supported power is 600W.
Question: 30
Which of the following tools would a technician use to connect wires to an RJ45 connector?
A. Crimper
B. Cable stripper
C. Punch down
D. Loopback plug
Answer: A
Explanation:
A crimper is specifically used to attach RJ45 connectors to the ends of network cables. It presses the connector pins into the cable’s wires, establishing a secure electrical connection. A punch down tool is used for wiring patch panels or keystone jacks, not for attaching connectors.
Question: 31
A user is experiencing multiple issues with an in-place upgrade of a laptop’s operating system. The built-in camera is unresponsive, and the user is unable to pair the device with any Bluetooth accessories. Which of the following ate most likely causing three issues? (Select two).
A. Incorrect configuration of the settings
B. OS and device version incompatibility
C. Disabled settings following the upgrade
D. Full storage
E. Outdated drivers
F. Corrupted registry entries
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Outdated drivers: Device functionality issues after an OS upgrade are often caused by incompatible or outdated drivers.
Disabled settings: Some features may be disabled during the upgrade process, requiring re-enablement.
Why Not A (Incorrect configuration): This is unlikely given the issues arose only after the upgrade.
Why Not B (OS and device incompatibility): Upgrades check for compatibility before installation.
Why Not D (Full storage): Storage issues typically prevent installation, not device functionality.
Why Not F (Corrupted registry entries): While possible, this is less common than the selected answers.
Question: 32
A management team is concerned about enterprise devices that do not have any controls in place.
Which of the following should an administrator implement to address this concern?
A. MDM
B. MFA
C. vpn
D. SSL
Answer: A
Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) enables administrators to enforce controls on enterprise devices, such as restricting apps, ensuring compliance, and remotely managing security policies.
Why Not B (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user access but does not control device configurations.
Why Not C (VPN): VPN secures communication but does not enforce device controls.
Why Not D (SSL): SSL secures data in transit but does not provide device management.
Question: 33
A user returns from a trip and discovers a computer that is connected to the LAN times out intermittently Upon investigation, a technician finds the RJ45 pin is not property terminated Which of the following networking tools is most appropriate to fix the issue?
A. Toner probe
B. Cable tester
C. Punch down
D. Crimper
Answer: D
Explanation:
D . Crimper: A crimper is used to terminate an RJ45 cable properly by attaching the connector to the twisted-pair wires. If the termination is not done correctly, the connection will be intermittent or fail entirely.
Incorrect Options:
A . Toner probe: Used to locate cables or trace their path, not for terminating RJ45 connectors.
B . Cable tester: Useful for testing connectivity but does not fix termination issues.
C . Punch down: Used to connect wires to a patch panel or keystone jack, not for RJ45 connectors.
Key Takeaway: A crimper is the proper tool for fixing an improperly terminated RJ45 connection.
Question: 34
A technician is putting RJ45 connectors on Cat 6 cables. Which of the following tools should the technician use to secure the connectors?
A. Loopback plug
B. Wire cutters
C. Punch down
D. Crimping
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question: 35
A user joins a conference call with a Bluetooth headset. Which of the following has the user created?
A. MAN
B. PAN
C. SAN
D. WAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
B . PAN (Personal Area Network): A PAN is a network established between devices in close proximity, such as between a smartphone and a Bluetooth headset.
Bluetooth technology is specifically designed for short-range communication, making it a type of PAN.
Incorrect Options:
A . MAN (Metropolitan Area Network): A MAN covers a city or metropolitan area and is not relevant to Bluetooth connections.
C . SAN (Storage Area Network): A SAN is used for large-scale data storage, unrelated to Bluetooth connections.
D . WAN (Wide Area Network): A WAN spans large geographical areas (e.g., the internet) and is not relevant to this scenario.
Key Takeaway: Bluetooth connections, such as those between a headset and a device, create a Personal Area Network (PAN).
Question: 36
A computer displays an error message indicating there is insufficient storage when installing applications. The user reports slow application load times. Which of the following replacement components would best resolve this issue?
A. SSD
B. USB
C. HDD
D. RAM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Upgrading to a solid-state drive (SSD) provides more storage space and faster read/write speeds, which resolves both the “insufficient storage” error and slow application loads.
Option B (USB):Not intended for permanent application storage or performance improvements.
Option C (HDD):Could solve storage capacity but would not improve speed.
Option D (RAM):Affects multitasking and memory-intensive tasks, not storage capacity directly.
Question: 37
A technician receives a tablet that looks like it has a bulge inside. The bulge is pushing the screen away from the backplate. The tablet still turns on when it is plugged in, but the screen looks damaged and turns off when unplugged. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. Malfunctioning power supply
B. Damaged charge port
C. Swollen battery
D. Broken screen
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely cause is a swollen battery, which occurs when the battery’s internal components break down, causing a buildup of gas. This results in: Physical Symptoms: The battery bulges, pushing the screen away.
Operational Symptoms: The device may still power on when connected to a charger but fails to hold a charge due to battery degradation.
Option A (Malfunctioning power supply): Incorrect. Power supply issues affect charging but do not cause physical bulging.
Option B (Damaged charge port): Incorrect. A damaged port can prevent charging but does not explain the bulge.
Option D (Broken screen): Incorrect. A damaged screen does not cause the device to bulge; it is likely a secondary effect of the swollen battery.
Safety Note: A swollen battery poses a risk of fire or explosion and should be replaced immediately following proper disposal procedures.
Question: 38
A user reports that their desktop PC does not turn on. Which of the following components would most likely cause the issue?
A. PSU
B. GPU
C. RAM
D. CPU
Answer: A
Explanation:
If a desktop fails to power on entirely, the most probable cause is a faulty Power Supply Unit (PSU). If there are no lights, fans, or POST beeps, the PSU may have failed, cutting off all power to the motherboard and components.
Option B (GPU):Could prevent video output, but the system would still power on and beep.
Option C (RAM):Missing or faulty RAM would cause POST errors but not prevent startup entirely.
Option D (CPU):A bad CPU may cause POST failure, but the system would usually at least power on.
Question: 39
A technician is troubleshooting an all-in-one laser printer that prints a vertical line when making copies and scans. When users print or receive faxes, the output from the printer is correct. Which of the following should the technician examine to determine the cause of the issue?
A. The pickup rollers
B. The corona wire
C. The document feeder
D. The drum assembly
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the issue only occurs during scanning and copying (not printing or faxing), the problem is isolated to the document feeder. A vertical line is typically caused by debris or damage on the glass under the ADF (Automatic Document Feeder), not on components related to printing.
Question: 40
A customer reports slow network speeds. Which of the following components is most likely failing?
A. CPU
B. NIC
C. HDD
D. RAM
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Network Interface Card (NIC)is the hardware responsible for network connectivity. If the NIC is failing or underperforming (e.g., due to a bad driver, hardware fault, or misconfiguration), it can causes low or unstable network speeds.
Option A (CPU):A failing CPU affects overall system performance but not specifically network speed.
Option C (HDD):A slow hard drive causes application lag, but not poor network performance.
Option D (RAM):Affects multitasking and speed, not network throughput.
Question: 41
Which of the following should a technician use to terminate a Cat 6 cable to a patch panel?
A. Punch down tool
B. Crimper
C. Toner probe
D. Network tap
Answer: A
Explanation:
A punch down tool is specifically used to insert wires into a punch down block in patch panels, which is typical for Cat 6 and similar cabling. It ensures a secure and correct connection by pushing the wire into a metal groove that slices the insulation.
Question: 42
A help desk technician inspects a laptop keyboard because a single key has stopped working. The technician checks the keyboard for debris. Which of the following actions should the technician do next to troubleshoot the issue cost-effectively?
A. Replace the keyboard.
B. Replace the key switch
C. Replace the circuit board.
D. Replace the keycap
Answer: B
Explanation:
If only one key is not functioning and debris has been checked, replacing the individual keycap is the most cost-effective next step. It’s a simple, low-cost option before considering more extensive repairs like replacing the entire keyboard.
Question: 43
A technician is troubleshooting issues occurring on a user’s mobile device. Applications and the OS have slow response times, even when performing simple tasks, such as writing an email.
Additionally, new applications occasionally fail to launch. Which of the following should the technician do next?
A. Move the device to a room with a colder temperature.
B. Close unnecessary programs.
C. Reset to factory default settings.
D. Check the battery health of the device.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The symptoms slow response and failed app launches indicate that the device’s memory or processing resources are overutilized. Closing unnecessary apps can free up RAM and CPU resources, improving performance.
Option A:Overheating may cause sluggishness, but that’s not indicated here.
Option C:Factory reset is a last resort, not the next logical step.
Option D:Battery health would affect uptime, not system speed.
Question: 44
A customer reports their tablet was recently dropped on the ground. The tablet has a small crack in one corner of the display, and it does not charge when plugged in. Which of the following should a technician do first?
A. Perform a hard restart.
B. Replace the battery
C. Inspect the USB-C port for damage
D. Run diagnostics on the digitizer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Physical damage from dropping a tablet may often affect ports or connectors. Before taking deeper diagnostic or replacement steps, it’s important to visually inspect the USB-C charging port for damage or debris. If the port is damaged, charging issues can occur regardless of battery health.
Question: 45
A user prints a job from a laser printer. The user wipes the page, and the words and images come off of it. The technician replaces the toner cartridge, but the issue persists. Which of the following components should the technician replace next?
A. Fuser
B. Drum
C. Developer roller
D. Discharge lamp
Answer: A
Explanation:
In laser printers, the fuser unit is responsible formelting the toner onto the paper using heat and pressure. If the toner rubs off easily, it’s a clear sign the fuser is failing or not heating properly. Replacing the fuser will ensure the toner bonds correctly to the paper.
Option B (Drum):Transfers the image, but doesn’t fuse the toner.
Option C (Developer roller):Applies toner to the drum wouldn’t cause toner to rub off.
Option D (Discharge lamp):Prepares the drum for a new image; not related to toner adhesion.
Question: 46
Which of the following tools is best to track where an Ethernet cable is patched?
A. Crimper
B. Punch down tool
C. Cable stripper
D. Toner probe
Answer: D
Explanation:
Atoner probe(also known as a tone generator and probe) is the best tool for tracing and identifying cables in a patch panel or wall jack. The tone generator sends a signal through the wire, and the probe helps locate the cable by detecting the tone.
Option A (Crimper):Used to attach connectors (e.g., RJ-45), not for tracing cables.
Option B (Punch down tool):Used to terminate cables into patch panels or keystone jacks.
Option C (Cable stripper):Used to remove insulation, not to trace cables.
Question: 47
A small company wants the ability to print in full color but needs to pay a minimal initial purchase price for the printer Which of the following is the best option?
A. Thermal printer
B. Inkjet printer
C. Dot matrix printer
D. Laser printer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Inkjet printers are the best choice for a small company seeking full-color printing with a minimal initial cost. While they have higher operating costs (due to ink), they are affordable and capable of high-quality color output.
Why Not A (Thermal printer): Thermal printers are not designed for color printing and are typically used for labels or receipts.
Why Not C (Dot matrix printer): Dot matrix printers are outdated, noisy, and do not support full-color printing.
Why Not D (Laser printer): Laser printers have lower running costs but a higher initial purchase price, especially for color models.
Question: 48
A company wants to save printing costs by restricting network printer use. The company implements a solution that requires employees to authenticate to the printer to release print jobs Which of the following has the company implemented?
A. Access control list
B. Audit logging
C. Badging
D. Print server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Badging is a form of authentication that requires employees to use a badge or ID card to release print jobs. This solution reduces unnecessary printing by ensuring only authorized users print.
Why Not A (Access control list): While ACLs manage permissions, they are not used for physical authentication at printers.
Why Not B (Audit logging): Audit logs track actions but do not restrict printer access.
Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but doesn’t enforce authentication.
Question: 49
A user reported performance issues on a computer after a recent OS update A technician is confident that rolling back the system will resolve the issue. Which of the following steps should the technician take next?
A. Document the findings.
B. Investigate any recent infrastructure changes.
C. Initiate the system restore
D. Verify full system functionality.
Answer: C
Explanation:
C . Initiate the system restore: If the technician is confident that rolling back the system to a previous restore point will resolve the issue, the next logical step is to initiate the System Restore process.
System Restore allows the system to revert to a state before the OS update, which can eliminate the performance issues caused by the update.
Incorrect Options:
A . Document the findings: Documentation is important but should occur after resolving the issue.
B . Investigate any recent infrastructure changes: This is unnecessary if the issue is already attributed to the OS update.
D . Verify full system functionality: This step should be performed after the System Restore is completed.
Key Takeaway: When confident that rolling back will resolve the issue, the technician should proceed with initiating a System Restore to revert the OS.
Question: 50
A computer is experiencing random shutdowns. A technician notices that the fans on the computer work but are noisy. The CPU temperature is about 122°F (50°C) when the computer is started but rises to 208°F (98°C) when applications are opened. Which of the following would most likely fix this issue?
A. Replacing the power supply
B. Installing a high-performance heat sink
C. Adjusting the fan settings
D. Adding more RAM to the computer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Excessive heat buildup due to insufficient cooling is a primary cause of unexpected shutdowns. A high-performance heat sink improves thermal transfer, dissipates more heat, and helps maintain CPU temperature within safe limits. When CPU temperatures reach levels like 208°F (98°C), the system may shut down to prevent damage.
Question: 51
Several storms cause mission-critical servers to go offline unexpectedly A server also goes offline suddenly due to haroNvare failure Upon assessment the company purchases new UPSs to condition power and allow the OSs to shut down gracefully in the event of a power failure However, the UPSs are delayed due to supply chain issues Which of the following can balance a cost-effective solution with uptime requirements?
A. Purchasing backup generators
B. Increasing input voltage
C. Installing redundant PSUs
D. Activating a hot site
Answer: C
Explanation:
C . Installing redundant PSUs (Power Supply Units):
Redundant PSUs provide fault tolerance by ensuring that if one power supply fails, another will take over seamlessly.
This is a cost-effective way to increase uptime while waiting for the UPSs to arrive.
Incorrect Options:
A . Purchasing backup generators: Generators are costly and are typically used for long-term outages, not as an immediate or cost-effective solution.
B . Increasing input voltage: This is not a practical solution to hardware failures or power issues.
D . Activating a hot site: A hot site is an expensive, fully operational backup facility that would not be a cost-effective solution for this scenario.
Key Takeaway: Installing redundant PSUs is a cost-effective way to balance uptime requirements in case of power or hardware failure.
Question: 52
A customer reports that a text-only document prints with unrecognizable characters. The print preview correctly displays the document. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. Outdated firmware
B. Incorrect driver
C. Bad toner cartridge
D. Corrupted document file
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question: 53
Which of the following best represents the purpose of NFC?
A. Wired connections between several devices
B. Short-distance wireless connections between two devices
C. Wireless connections between multiple devices at once
D. Direct connection of two computers for file sharing
Answer: B
Explanation:
NFC (Near-Field Communication) is a subset of RFID technology designed for very short-range wireless communication, typically within a few centimeters. It is primarily used for contactless transactions, like mobile payments, and can also support peer-to-peer data exchanges. NFC operates at 13.56 MHz and enables devices to communicate when placed near each other.
Question: 54
A company uses vital legacy software that does not run in the current OS version Which of the following will best support the software while keeping the OS current?
A. Shared resources
B. System sandbox
C. Test development
D. Application visualization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Application virtualization allows legacy software to run in a virtualized environment while the operating system remains current. It isolates the application from the OS, ensuring compatibility without downgrading the OS.
Why Not A (Shared resources): This relates to resource sharing, not application compatibility.
Why Not B (System sandbox): Sandboxes isolate applications for security testing, not compatibility.
Why Not C (Test development): Test environments are used for development, not running legacy applications.
Question: 55
While reviewing options in the BIOS/UEFI settings page to fix a laptop issue, a support technician notices an option to clear existing TPM keys. Which of the following would most likely happen if the TPM is cleared?
A. Encrypted hard drives would probably not be accessible.
B. All security certificates would need to be reinstalled from trusted roots.
C. The device would need to be reenrolled in the MDM platform
D. The laptop would need to be registered to the domain as a new client.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based security feature used to store cryptographic keys, such as those used for encryption, authentication, or device identification. It plays a critical role in ensuring secure operations for encrypted drives, BitLocker, and secure boot processes. Clearing TPM keys involves wiping all stored cryptographic data, which can lead to several consequences depending on what the TPM was being used for. Let’s break it down:
Correct Answer: A. Encrypted hard drives would probably not be accessible.
Explanation:
Encrypted hard drives, such as those secured with BitLocker encryption, rely on the cryptographic keys stored in the TPM to unlock data.
Clearing the TPM will erase these keys, making it impossible for the encrypted drive to decrypt its contents unless a recovery key (separate from the TPM) is available. Without this recovery key, the data will likely become inaccessible.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. All security certificates would need to be reinstalled from trusted roots.
Clearing the TPM does not erase security certificates stored in the operating system or other areas.
Certificates are generally managed by the OS or specific applications, not the TPM. Clearing the TPM only affects cryptographic keys and data stored in the TPM chip, so this is incorrect.
C. The device would need to be reenrolled in the MDM platform.
Mobile Device Management (MDM) enrollment typically does not rely on the TPM. While certain enterprise security configurations may involve the TPM, clearing it does not inherently trigger MDM reenrollment unless specifically tied to the MDM configuration.
D. The laptop would need to be registered to the domain as a new client.
While domain registrations may sometimes use TPM for authentication or secure operations, clearing the TPM alone does not require re-registering the device to the domain. The domain registration and authentication process rely more on system-level credentials than the TPM itself.
Practical Example:
A user enables BitLocker on their laptop, which relies on the TPM to store the encryption key. Later, if they clear the TPM via BIOS/UEFI without saving the BitLocker recovery key separately, they will not be able to unlock the hard drive, leading to data loss unless the recovery key is available. This is a common issue when technicians or users inadvertently clear the TPM without understanding its role in encryption.
This question tests understanding of TPM functionality, encryption technologies, and secure device configurations.
Question: 56
A technician needs to select PC components with a minimal number of visible internal cables. Which of the following should the technician use?
A. SATA drive connections
B. Liquid cooling
C. Modular power supply
D. Wireless NIC
Answer: C
Explanation:
A modular power supply allows a technician to connect only the power cables that are needed, reducing clutter and improving airflow. This is ideal when aiming for a clean build with minimal visible internal cables.
Option A (SATA drive connections): Still require both power and data cables, adding to cable count.
Option B (Liquid cooling):May reduce some bulk from large air coolers, but adds tubing and still needs cabling.
Option D (Wireless NIC):Adds wireless capability but has no relation to internal cabling cleanliness.
Question: 57
Which of the following display characteristics would be most important to ensure screen images appear the same as printed output?
A. Color gamut
B. Pixel density
C. Refresh rate
D. Resolution
Answer: A
Explanation:
Color gamut refers to the range of colors a display can accurately reproduce. For tasks like graphic design or photo editing, ensuring the screen’s colors match the printed output is critical. Monitors with wide and accurate color gamuts (e.g., Adobe RGB) are preferred for these applications.
Option B (Pixel density): Incorrect. Pixel density affects image sharpness, not color accuracy.
Option C (Refresh rate): Incorrect. Refresh rate impacts motion smoothness but is unrelated to color matching.
Option D (Resolution): Incorrect. Resolution determines clarity and detail but does not influence color accuracy.
Question: 58
Which of the following cable types can be used to transfer data and video?
A. USB-C
B. HDMI
C. DisplayPort
D. VGA
Answer: A
Explanation:
USB-Cis a versatile connector capable of transmitting data, video, audio, and power. With standards like DisplayPort over USB-C or Thunderbolt 3/4, it can be used for external displays, file transfers, charging, and more all through one cable.
Option B (HDMI):Supports video and audio but not general data transfer.
Option C (DisplayPort):Similar to HDMI supports video/audio but not general file transfer.
Option D (VGA):Legacy analog video only no data or audio support.
Question: 59
A human resources department uses a network shared with other departments to produce a variety of printed resources for legal retention. The human resources department only wants Its members to have access to these materials. Which of the following should the technician Implement?
A. Security groups
B. Audit logs
C. Time-of-day access
D. Print server
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security groups are used to manage access permissions to network resources, ensuring only authorized HR department members can access the shared materials.
Why Not B (Audit logs): Audit logs monitor activity but do not restrict access.
Why Not C (Time-of-day access): Time-of-day access limits when users can access resources but doesn’t specify user permissions.
Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but does not control file access.
Question: 60
Users are complaining that the audio from a presenter is choppy and unintelligible Which of the following is causing the issue?
A. Webcam
B. Digitizer
C. inverter
D. Microphone
Answer: D
Explanation:
Choppy or unintelligible audio is typically caused by issues with the microphone, such as poor quality, hardware defects, or misconfiguration.
Why Not A (Webcam): The webcam handles video, not audio.
Why Not B (Digitizer): A digitizer relates to touchscreens, not audio.
Why Not C (Inverter): Inverters manage power for displays, not audio.
Question: 61
A user connects their laptop to a projector in a conference room. Once connected, the user reports the screen is smaller at the bottom than at the top. The user tries restarting the laptop and then disconnecting and reconnecting the cable to the projector. Which of the following should a technician do to resolve the issue?
A. Replace the HDMI cable.
B. Power cycle the projector.
C. Adjust the keystone
D. Increase the resolution.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A distorted image where the screen is not symmetrical (wider at the top or bottom) is typically due to keystone distortion. Adjusting the projector’s keystone settings corrects this trapezoidal effect caused by an angled projection.
Question: 62
Which of the following could a user employ to maximize module bandwidth when selecting memory for a high-end gaming computer?
A. Error correction
B. RAM voltage
C. Channel configuration
D. Physical module size
Answer: C
Explanation:
Channel configuration(e.g., dual-channel, quad-channel) determines how memory modules communicate with the memory controller. Using matched pairs in dual- or quad-channel setup scan significantly increase memory bandwidth, improving performance especially for gaming and video intensive tasks.
Option A (Error correction): ECC RAM is used in servers for reliability, not performance or gaming.
Option B (RAM voltage):Affects compatibility and overclocking but not bandwidth.
Option D (Physical size):Refers to module form factor (e.g., DIMM, SO-DIMM) and does not impact bandwidth.
Question: 63
Which of the following is used primarily for archiving data?
A. PAN
B. MAN
C. SAN
D. LAN
E. WAN
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is primarily used for data archiving and large-scale storage. SANs provide high-speed, block-level storage for enterprise environments.
Why Not A (PAN): Personal Area Networks are for connecting personal devices like phones and smartwatches.
Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Networks are for city-wide data communication, not storage.
Why Not D (LAN): Local Area Networks are for general connectivity, not dedicated storage.
Why Not WAN: Wide Area Networks are for connecting geographically dispersed networks, not storage.
Question: 64
A user prints a spreadsheet in duplex mode. The spreadsheet is difficult to read because some of the columns spill onto the second side of the page. Which of the following should the user do to prevent the issue but still print on both sides of the page?
A. Turn off duplex printing.
B. Try a smaller font size in the spreadsheet.
C. Change the page orientation.
D. Use a different print driver.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Changing the page orientation(e.g., from portrait to landscape) allows wider columns to fit on one side of the page. This maintains readability while continuing to use duplex printing.
Option A:Disabling duplex defeats the goal of printing on both sides.
Option B:May help, but could make the document harder to read if the font is too small.
Option D:Unlikely to resolve formatting issues related to layout and dimensions.
Question: 65
A customer needs to install a new printer in their network. The customer reports that users had intermittent connectivity issues with previous printers. Which of the following should the technician configure on the new printer to prevent this issue?
A. Gateway IP address
B. DHCP IP address
C. Static IP address
D. Public IP address
Answer: C
Explanation:
Intermittent connectivity issues with network printers are commonly caused by changing IP addresses when using DHCP. Assigning a static IP address ensures that the printer is always reachable at the same IP address by client machines.
Question: 66
Which of the following port numbers are associated with email traffic? (Select two).
A. 23
B. 25
C. 67
D. 110
E. 137
F. 443
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
To answer this question, we need to identify the port numbers associated with email protocols used in client-server communication.
Port 25 (SMTP – Simple Mail Transfer Protocol):
This port is primarily used for sending emails between mail servers and from mail clients to mail servers (sending outbound mail).
SMTP is an essential protocol for email traffic.
Port 110 (POP3 – Post Office Protocol v3):
POP3 is used for retrieving emails from a mail server. It is commonly used for downloading email messages to a local client, after which the messages are deleted from the server.
While not as commonly used today (due to IMAP being preferred), POP3 is still a recognized email protocol, and its association with port 110 makes it a valid answer.
Incorrect Options:
A. Port 23: This is the Telnet protocol used for remote terminal access. It is not related to email traffic.
C. Port 67: This port is associated with the DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server-to client communications. It is unrelated to email.
E. Port 137: This port is part of NetBIOS, used for name resolution in legacy Windows environments.
It is not relevant to email traffic.
F. Port 443: This port is used for HTTPS (secure web traffic) and is unrelated to email protocols.
Key Take away: The two correct port numbers associated with email traffic are B. 25 (SMTP) for sending emails and D. 110 (POP3) for retrieving emails.
Question: 67
Which of the following storage options would a technician most likely recommend to have large amounts of affordable capacity without concern for read times on a desktop computer?
A. 750GB NVMe M.2 SSD
B. 2x 1TB PCIe SSD in RAID 1
C. TB SATA 3.5″ 5,400rpm HDD
D. 4TB SAS 2.5″ 15,000rpm HDD
Answer: C
Explanation:
If performance is not a primary concern and the user requires large, cost-effective storage, a2TB 5400rpm SATA HDD is ideal. It offers high capacity at a lower price point than SSDs and faster HDDs.
Option A:NVMe drives offer exceptional speed but are significantly more expensive per GB and not necessary when read/write speed is not a concern.
Option B:RAID 1 improves redundancy but cuts usable capacity in half and uses expensive SSDs.
Option D:SAS drives are fast and reliable but are enterprise-grade and expensive overkill for desktop use.
Question: 68
Which of the following resolutions is commonly known as Ultra HD?
A. 1920×1080
B. 2048×1080
C. 3840×2160
D. 7680×4320
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ultra HD (UHD), also referred to as4K UHD, has a resolution of3840x2160. It’s four times the resolution of standard 1080p (Full HD), offering more screen real estate and sharper images.
Option A (1920×1080):Full HD (FHD), not UHD.
Option B (2048×1080):DCI 2K used in cinema, not common for Ultra HD.
Option D (7680×4320):Known as 8K UHD, not standard Ultra HD.
Question: 69
Which of the following is a benefit of using a VLAN?
A. It minimizes collision domains.
B. It provides private access to cloud resources.
C. It increases network address space.
D. It enables secure network segmentation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) segments a physical network into separate logical networks, enhancing security by isolating traffic.
Why Not A (Minimizes collision domains): VLANs manage broadcast domains, not collision domains.
Why Not B (Provides private access to cloud resources): VLANs operate within a local network, not cloud-specific.
Why Not C (Increases network address space): VLANs do not affect address space.
Question: 70
Which of the following would prevent a virtual machine from communicating with any endpoints on a network or the internet?
A. Private cloud
B. Sandbox
C. Type 1 hypervisor
Answer: C
Explanation:
A sand box is an isolated virtual environment used to test or run applications securely without risk to the host or network. It prevents the VM from communicating with external systems, making it ideal for testing malware or suspicious software.
Option A (VDI):Virtual Desktop Infrastructure allows network communication; it does not restrict it.
Option B (Private cloud):Refers to a cloud deployment model, not a communication barrier.
Option D (Type 1 hypervisor):Runs VMs directly on hardware and does not inherently block communication.
Question: 71
A projector has been shutting down after 30 minutes of use, and it has a strange smell The technician confirms the power source is not the cause of the issue Which of the following steps should the technician take next to resolve this issue?
A. Replace the bulb
B. Check the projector configuration
C. Clean the filter
D. Adjust the gamma settings
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reasoning: Projectors have air filters that prevent dust from entering the internal components. A clogged filter can cause the projector to overheat, resulting in shutdowns and even strange smells due to overheating components. Cleaning the filter is a standard troubleshooting step when projectors exhibit overheating symptoms.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A . Replace the bulb:
While a failing bulb may eventually cause issues, it would not typically result in a strange smell or repeated shutdowns after a fixed period. Bulb issues usually manifest as dim or flickering images.
B . Check the projector configuration:
Configuration settings, such as resolution or input options, would not cause overheating or shutdowns. This option does not address the described symptoms.
D . Adjust the gamma settings:
Gamma settings affect display brightness and contrast but have no impact on overheating or strange smells.
Practical Example:
Dust accumulation in projectors is a common issue, especially in environments with poor air circulation. A clogged filter causes restricted airflow, leading to overheating and automatic shutdowns to protect internal components. Cleaning the filter typically resolves this issue.
Question: 72
A customer is able to print most documents with their USB inkjet printer, but the system is unresponsive when printing a certain report from a custom application. Nothing will print until the computer is restarted and the printer is power cycled. A technician remotes into the PC and confirms that the spooler stops working when this report is sent. After cleaning the spooler and reinstalling the drivers from the manufacturer’s website, the issue persists. No other sites using the application report similar issues. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
A. The manufacturer is curating content before it reaches the device to preserve ink.
B. The application has a bug that the developer needs to address.
C. The system is using the PostScript language instead of the PCL.
D. Personal preferences have changed and documents with graphics are now online-only
Answer: B
Explanation:
If a print spooler crashes specifically with one application and no issue occurs on other systems, the most likely root cause is a bug within that specific application. Restarting the spooler and reinstalling drivers resolves system-wide or hardware-related issues not app-specific failures. This indicates the application may be sending malformed print data.
Question: 73
A technician needs to move a workstation to a different logical network segment. Which of the following technologies should the technician use?
A. DHCP
B. VLAN
C. DNS
D. VPN
Answer: B
Explanation:
AVLAN (Virtual LAN)is used to logically segment a network without requiring physical separation. It enables grouping devices based on function or department regardless of their physical location.
Option A (DHCP):Assigns IP addresses dynamically but doesn’t create network segments.
Option C (DNS):Resolves domain names to IP addresses, not used for network segmentation.
Option D (VPN):Provides secure remote access but does not relate to logical segmentation within a local network.
Question: 74
Which of the following connectors is found on an optical networking cable?
A. RJ45
B. LC
C. USB-C
D. Lightning
Answer: B
Explanation:
LC Connector (Lucent Connector):
LC is a type of fiber optic connector commonly used in optical networking cables. It is small, compact, and widely used for high-speed data transfer over fiber optic networks.
LC connectors are specifically designed for fiber optic cables, making them the correct answer.
Incorrect Options:
A . RJ45: RJ45 connectors are used for Ethernet cables (twisted-pair copper cabling) and are not compatible with optical networking cables.
C . USB-C: USB-C is a connector type used for general-purpose data transfer, charging, and video output, not for optical networking.
D . Lightning: Lightning connectors are proprietary to Apple devices and are not used in optical networking.
Key Takeaway:
The LC connector is specifically designed for fiber optic cables, making it the correct answer for optical networking.
Question: 75
Which of the following is designed to be used in commercial spaces?
A. USB 3.1 Gen 2
B. Straight tip fiber connector
C. Plenum cabling
D. Cat 8
Answer: C
Explanation:
Plenum cabling is designed for use in commercial spaces where cables run through air ducts or plenum spaces, as it has fire-resistant properties and emits less toxic smoke.
Why Not A (USB 3.1 Gen 2): USB is for peripheral connections, not large-scale commercial installations.
Why Not B (Straight tip fiber connector): Fiber connectors are for high-speed connections but are not specifically for commercial spaces.
Why Not D (Cat 8): While Cat 8 is high-speed, it is not uniquely suited for commercial spaces like plenum cabling.
Question: 76
Which of the following types of connectors does an IDE hard drive use for power?
A. F type
B. SC
C. Molex
D. Lightning
Answer: C
Explanation:
An IDE hard drive uses a Molex connector for power. This 4-pin connector is a standard for older drives.
Why Not A (F type): F type connectors are used for coaxial cables in video and internet applications.
Why Not B (SC): SC connectors are for fiber optic cables.
Why Not D (Lightning): Lightning connectors are for Apple devices.
Question: 77
Which of the following printing initiatives would be best to accomplish environmentally friendly objectives?
A. Requiring user authentication for printing
B. Locking down printing to only certain individuals
C. Modifying duplex settings to double-sided
D. Changing the print quality settings to best
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modifying duplex settings to double-sided: Printing on both sides of the paper (duplex printing) reduces paper usage, making it one of the most effective environmentally friendly printing initiatives.
It directly minimizes waste and supports sustainability goals in the workplace.
Incorrect Options:
A . Requiring user authentication for printing: While this can reduce unnecessary or unauthorized printing, it does not directly address environmental objectives like saving resources.
B . Locking down printing to only certain individuals: Limiting access may reduce printing overall, but it does not actively contribute to environmentally friendly practices like duplex printing.
D . Changing the print quality settings to best: Using the “best” print quality increases toner or ink usage, which is counterproductive to environmentally friendly objectives.
Key Takeaway:
Modifying duplex settings to enable double-sided printing is the best initiative to achieve environmentally friendly goals by reducing paper consumption.
Question: 78
Which of the following networking devices will most likely need to be installed in between the ISP running DOCSIS and the LAN in a SOHO environment?
A. Switch
B. Firewall
C. Cable modem
D. Router
E. Access point
Answer: C
Explanation:
To determine the correct device, we need to understand how a DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) network functions in a Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) environment:
C . Cable Modem: A cable modem is required to convert the signal provided by the ISP (Internet Service Provider) over a DOCSIS network into a format that is usable by the local area network (LAN).
DOCSIS is a standard for high-speed internet over cable television infrastructure, and the cable modem acts as the gateway between the ISP’s coaxial network and the LAN.
Without the cable modem, devices in the LAN would not be able to access the internet.
Incorrect Options:
A . Switch: A switch is used to connect multiple devices within the LAN. It does not connect the LAN to the ISP’s DOCSIS network.
B . Firewall: While firewalls provide security by managing inbound and outbound traffic, they do not serve as the interface between the ISP and LAN.
D . Router: A router directs traffic between different networks (e.g., between a LAN and the internet). However, in a DOCSIS network, the cable modem is the device that first connects to the ISP. Many modern cable modems also include built-in routers, but the modem is the primary device needed.
E . Access Point: An access point provides wireless connectivity within the LAN. It does not connect directly to the ISP or handle DOCSIS signals.
Key Take away: The correct device required to interface between the ISP’s DOCSIS network and the SOHO LAN is the cable modem.
Question: 79
A technician needs to ensure all data communications on all network devices are encrypted when logging in to the console. Which of the following protocols should the technician enable?
A. SSH
B. LDAP
C. FTPS
D. SMTP
Answer: A
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell) encrypts data communications for secure remote login and management of network devices, ensuring all console connections are encrypted.
Why Not B (LDAP): LDAP is used for directory services and does not encrypt by default.
Why Not C (FTPS): FTPS encrypts file transfers, not console communications.
Why Not D (SMTP): SMTP is used for email transmission, not for securing login sessions.
Question: 80
A financial institution needs a secure way to protect encryption keys used for unlocking chips on its
credit cards Which of the following should the institution use?
A. TLS
B. AMD
C. HSM
D. ARM
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Hardware Security Module (HSM) securely manages cryptographic keys, including those used to protect credit card chips.
Why Not A (TLS): TLS secures data in transit, not encryption key storage.
Why Not B (AMD): AMD refers to processors, not security modules.
Why Not D (ARM): ARM is a processor architecture, not a cryptographic security solution.
Question: 81
A salesperson is unable to use a personal device to access emails and calendar features at a client site but was able to use the device while at the office. Which of the following policies has been enforced on the salesperson’s mobile device?
A. MOW
B. MAN
C. MFA
D. MAM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Mobile Application Management (MAM) enforces policies restricting access to apps and services based on location, ensuring security at external sites.
Why Not A (MOW): “Mobile Only Workplace” (MOW) is not a recognized term in this context.
Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is unrelated to mobile device policies.
Why Not C (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user accounts but does not enforce app restrictions.
Question: 82
A help desk technician needs to work on a high-volume printer. Users have reported occasional paper jams and smudges appearing on printed documents. Which of the following steps should the technician do next to address these issues?
A. Perform a full factory reset.
B. Check and clean the rollers.
C. Change all the ink or toner cartridges.
D. Replace the fuser.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Paper jams and smudging in high-volume printers are often caused by dirty or worn rollers. Rollers are responsible for feeding the paper through the printer. Over time, they accumulate dust, toner residue, or wear out, resulting in misfeeds or jams. Cleaning or replacing them typically resolves this issue.
Option A (Factory reset):A full reset does not directly address mechanical issues like dirty rollers or smudging. It’s a last resort and more relevant to configuration or software-related issues.
Option C (Change toner cartridges):While toner quality can affect print quality, it won’t usually cause jams or widespread smudging unless the cartridge is leaking which is less likely across multiple users.
Option D (Replace the fuser):A damaged fuser could cause smudging, but this is typically after extensive use and is not the first thing to check. Fuser issues also usually present more persistent, uniform smudges.
Question: 83
After a technician installs a new motherboard, the computer will not start and fails POST. The technician verifies the power supply is functioning as expected, and the CPU is installed correctly. Which of the following steps should the technician complete next?
A. Flash the BIOS.
B. Check the CMOS battery.
C. Reseat the RAM.
D. Reinstall the old motherboard.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A common reason for a POST failure after a motherboard installation is improperly seated RAM. The system requires working memory to successfully complete POST. Reseating (removing and reinserting) the RAM ensures it’s making proper contact with the motherboard.
Option A: Flashing the BIOS is not possible if the system won’t POST.
Option B: A dead CMOS battery can cause BIOS settings to reset, but it usually won’t prevent POST entirely.
Option D: Reinstalling the old motherboard is premature basic troubleshooting steps should be completed first.
Question: 84
A user brings a laptop to work every morning, correctly seats it in the docking station and then opens the laptop to begin work with no issues After the user left the laptop at home during a two-week vacation the laptop is no longer working. Upon returning to the office, the user reports that the keyboard and display are no longer working Which of the following should the technician ask the user to do first?
A. Ensure the docking station is plugged in.
B. Press and release the laptop power button.
C. Plug the laptop in and let it charge overnight
D. Connect the laptop directly to the network.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reasoning: Many docking stations provide power and functionality only when the laptop is properly powered on. If the laptop was powered off (e.g., during the vacation), docking it will not automatically turn it on. The technician should first ensure the laptop is powered on by pressing the power button.
This is a common troubleshooting step when laptops in docking stations appear non-functional.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A . Ensure the docking station is plugged in:
While ensuring power to the docking station is important, the scenario specifies that the issue occurred after a vacation. The likelihood of the docking station losing power coincidentally during the vacation is low. Verifying the laptop’s power state should be the first step.
C . Plug the laptop in and let it charge overnight:
There is no indication the laptop’s battery is drained. While charging could resolve a dead battery, the user is more likely experiencing an issue where the laptop is powered off but docked, so charging overnight is not the best first step.
D . Connect the laptop directly to the network:
A network connection will not resolve the primary issue of the keyboard and display not working. Addressing the laptop’s power state is a higher priority.
Practical Example:
If a user returns from a vacation and places a powered-off laptop into a docking station, it may not automatically power on. Pressing the power button ensures the laptop is operational and communicating with the docking station.
Question: 85
An end user’s domain password expires while they are working from home. The end user tries to reset the password using Ctrl+Alt+Delete and then receives the following message: Configuration information could not be read from the domain controller, either because the machine is unavailable or because access is denied. Which of the following will resolve this issue?
A. Restart the computer.
B. Connect to the VPN.
C. Reset the account in Active Directory.
D. Join the Wi-Fi network.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To change a domain password from a remote location, the system must communicate with the domain controller. Since the user is working from home, they need to connect to the corporate VPN to establish that secure connection. Without it, the password change cannot be authenticated.
Option A:Restarting will not resolve the lack of connection to the domain controller.
Option C:Resetting the password in AD could help, but doesn’t let the user reset it themselves.
Option D:The user may already be on Wi-Fi; the issue is with connecting to the corporate network, not local.
Question: 86
The display in a conference room has a burn-in get fastest that does not match the presentation. Which of the following would test resolve the issue?
A. Adjust the color settings.
B. Correct the keystone.
C. Increase the brightness levels
D. Replace the monitor.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B . Correct the keystone:
A keystone correction adjusts the image shape when a projector is angled either up or down. When a projector is not positioned directly perpendicular to the screen, the image becomes distorted or offset. Correcting the keystone will resolve alignment issues, ensuring that the presentation matches the display.
Incorrect Options:
A . Adjust the color settings: This is used for improving color balance and has no impact on ghosting or mismatched images.
C . Increase the brightness levels: Brightness changes the visibility of the image but does not address ghosting or alignment.
D . Replace the monitor: Replacing the monitor is unnecessary unless there is hardware failure, which is not indicated here.
Key Takeaway: Keystone correction is essential to resolve alignment and distortion issues in projected images.
Question: 87
A security team wants to implement compliance controls that only permits the installation of company-approved software on user laptops. Which of the following should the IT department deploy?
A. EDR
B. VPN
C. MDM
D. SaaS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows IT departments to enforce compliance controls, such as restricting the installation of unapproved software, on laptops and mobile devices.
Why Not A (EDR): Endpoint Detection and Response focuses on detecting and mitigating security threats, not compliance controls.
Why Not B (VPN): Virtual Private Networks provide secure connections but do not enforce software installation policies.
Why Not D (SaaS): Software as a Service refers to software delivery models and does not enforce compliance controls.
Question: 88
A support technician receives a call stating that a user has added a device to the network. The user used the same configurations from another workstation. When both workstations are turned on, neither can access the network reliably. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. The new computer has a duplicate IP address.
B. The DNS server is registering both hostnames.
C. The network cable was improperly terminated.
D. The security on the switchport needs to be reset.
Answer: A
Explanation:
If two devices have the same static IP address, an IP conflict occurs. This results in both devices being intermittently disconnected or unable to communicate on the network. It’s a common mistake when copying configurations manually.
Option B:DNS conflicts wouldn’t cause total disconnection and wouldn’t occur just from copying IP settings.
Option C:A cable issue would only affect one workstation.
Option D:Switchport security issues wouldn’t affect both machines simultaneously unless port security was configured very specifically.
Question: 89
A user reports slow internet browsing. The technician finds high CPU and memory usage, and popups occur every minute. Which of the following should the technician do next?
A. Escalate to the network team to check end-to-end connectivity.
B. Download and install the latest drivers.
C. Update the anti-malware signatures and scan the system.
D. Check the wireless settings and validate the DHCP configuration.
Answer: C
Explanation:
High resource usage along with frequent pop-ups are strong signs of a malware infection. The next logical step is to update anti-malware definitions and run a full scan to detect and remove threats.
Option A:Network performance is likely not the root cause local system behavior points to malware.
Option B:Drivers affect hardware functionality; they don’t resolve malware-related slowness.
Option D:DHCP issues usually cause IP conflicts or no network access, not CPU spikes or pop-ups.
Question: 90
Which of the following involves installing an application on a server so several users can run the
application concurrently without the need for local installation?
A. Client virtualization
B. Software as a service
C. Sandboxing
D. Embedded software
Answer: A
Explanation:
Client virtualization involves installing an application on a server and enabling multiple users to run the application simultaneously via virtualized sessions. This eliminates the need for individual installations on local machines.
Why Not B (Software as a Service): SaaS delivers software over the internet and does not require local installations but is managed by a third party, not the organization itself.
Why Not C (Sandboxing): Sandboxing is for isolating applications for security testing, not for concurrent user access.
Why Not D (Embedded software): Embedded software is installed on hardware devices, not shared across multiple users.
Question: 91
Which of the following is a Bluetooth network an example of?
A. PAN
B. LAN
C. WAN
D. SAN
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bluetooth is a wireless technology designed for short-range communication between devices. It is a classic example of a Personal Area Network (PAN), which supports communication between devices like smartphones, headsets, keyboards, and mice within a few meters. PANs are smaller in scope compared to LANs or WANs.
A technician is working on a RAID 1 array that is apparently degraded. The technician verifies the RAM and power are both operating as expected. Which of the following can the technician do to further isolate the issue?
A. Perform individual drive diagnostics.
B. Run the chkdsk /i command.
C. Rebuild the RAID array.
D. Reconfigure the array as RAID 0.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A degraded RAID 1array usually means one of the drives has failed or is failing. The correct next step is to run diagnostics on each drive to identify the faulty one. RAID 1 uses mirroring, so one good drive should still contain all the data.
Option B:chkdsk checks file system integrity, not hardware drive health.
Option C:Rebuilding should only occur after identifying and replacing a faulty drive.
Option D:RAID 0 offers no redundancy and would destroy data in this context.
Question: 93
A user is receiving many unsolicited emails. Which of the following controls can be configured to best reduce these types of emails?
A. Load balancer
B. Spam gateway
C. Mail forwarding
D. Proxy servers
Answer: B
Explanation:
A spam gateway filters unsolicited emails at the server level, significantly reducing spam before it reaches user inboxes.
Why Not A (Load balancer): Load balancers distribute traffic but don’t filter spam.
Why Not C (Mail forwarding): Forwarding doesn’t filter spam.
Why Not D (Proxy servers): Proxies control web traffic, not email filtering.
Question: 94
Which of the following cloud models would multiple organizations in the same industry most likely use?
A. Public
B. Hybrid
C. Community
D. Private
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Community Cloud is designed for use by several organizations with shared concerns (e.g., security, compliance, jurisdiction). It’s common in industries like healthcare or finance where multiple entities benefit from a common infrastructure with shared policies.
Option A (Public): Open to general public or large industry group less secure.
Option B (Hybrid): Mix of public and private does not imply industry collaboration.
Option D (Private): Dedicated to a single organization.
Question: 95
A systems administrator deploys BitLocker to all devices. However, one of the desktop PCs is not able to encrypt the boot drive. Which of the following should the administrator check?
A. TPM
B. CPU
C. RAM
D. HDD
Answer: A
Explanation:
BitLocker Drive Encryption in Windows requires a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)to encrypt the boot drive securely. The TPM is a dedicated microcontroller designed to secure hardware through integrated cryptographic keys. It validates system integrity during boot and securely stores the encryption keys. If BitLocker cannot find a TPM or it is disabled in BIOS/UEFI, drive encryption cannot proceed.
BitLocker can function without TPM using a USB startup key, but this compromises some security and is not recommended for managed enterprise environments.
Question: 96
Which of the following network services is used to assign an IP address to a network host?
A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. LDAP
D. SMTP
Answer: A
Explanation:
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is the service used to automatically assign IP addresses to network hosts. It dynamically manages the distribution of IP addresses and configuration details (like subnet mask, gateway, and DNS servers), ensuring no two devices are assigned the same address on the network.
Option B (DNS): Incorrect. DNS translates domain names into IP addresses but does not assign them.
Option C (LDAP): Incorrect. LDAP is a protocol used for accessing and maintaining directory services, such as user information and permissions.
Option D (SMTP): Incorrect. SMTP is used for sending and receiving email, not for IP address assignment.
Question: 97
A technician is experimenting with network configurations and has connected two laptops to an unmanaged switch. The technician configured one of the laptops with a static IP address of 192.168.1.1 and the other with a static IP address of 192.168.2.2. The laptops are not communicating with each other. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this issue?
A. The technician needs to use a hub instead of a switch.
B. The wireless NICs are malfunctioning.
C. PoE interferes with inter subnet communication.
D. The laptops do not have access to a router.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question: 98
Which of the following utilizes specialized ports on a laptop to expand the local connection options?
A. NFC adapter
B. Docking station
C. Port replicator
D. USB dongle
Answer: B
Explanation:
A docking station connects to a laptop’s proprietary port or USB-C/Thunderbolt, providing access to multiple additional ports(USB, Ethernet, video, audio, etc.). It allows users to transform a laptop into a full desktop workstation.
Option A (NFC adapter): Used for short-range communication, not port expansion.
Option C (Port replicator): Similar to a dock but usually less powerful and often lacks charging or video output.
Option D (USB dongle): Adds a single function (like Wi-Fi or storage), not full port expansion.
Question: 99
Which of the following devices is designed to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic?
A. Switch
B. Access point
C. Firewall
D. Hub
Answer: C
Explanation:
A firewall monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules, protecting the network from unauthorized access and threats.
Why Not A (Switch): A switch connects devices within a network but does not monitor or filter traffic.
Why Not B (Access point): An access point provides Wi-Fi connectivity but does not filter traffic.
Why Not D (Hub): A hub simply broadcasts data to all connected devices without filtering traffic.
Question: 100
Which of the following can a user utilize to share their mobile phone connection with their laptop?
A. IR
B. NFC
C. Wi-Fi Direct
D. Tethering
Answer: D
Explanation:
Tethering refers to sharing a mobile phone’s internet connection with another device, such as a laptop, either through USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi. Tethering effectively turns the mobile phone into a personal hotspot for internet access.
Option A (IR): Incorrect. Infrared (IR) is used for short-range communication, such as remote controls, but it does not support internet sharing.
Option B (NFC): Incorrect. Near-field communication (NFC) is used for close-proximity data transfer, not for internet sharing.
Option C (Wi-Fi Direct): Incorrect. Wi-Fi Direct enables device-to-device communication but does not inherently provide internet sharing.
Question: 101
A technician is having issues replacing a laptop’s wireless card because the cover seems to be stuck. Which of the following should the technician do next to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check the product manual for the procedure
B. Use a pry tool to force the cover open
C. Insert the wireless card into the M.2 slot
D. Try to move the cover by sliding it in all directions.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A . Check the product manual for the procedure:
When hardware is not easily accessible, always consult the product manual for proper disassembly procedures. Forcing the cover can damage the laptop or void the warranty.
Product manuals often provide step-by-step instructions for safely accessing internal components.
Incorrect Options:
B . Use a pry tool to force the cover open: Forcing the cover can cause physical damage to the device.
C . Insert the wireless card into the M.2 slot: This step cannot be performed until the cover is properly removed.
D . Try to move the cover by sliding it in all directions: Randomly sliding the cover can cause damage if the correct removal method is not followed.
Key Takeaway: Always refer to the product manual to ensure safe and proper disassembly of laptop components.
Question: 102
A technician needs to confirm that desktop PCs can be deployed to a global, remote workforce.
Which of the following specifications should the technician validate?
- Input voltage
- BIOS language support
- Supply chain security
- Power efficiency
Answer: A
Explanation:
Input voltage must be validated to ensure desktop PCs can operate in different regions with varying
power standards (e.g., 110V in North America vs. 220V in Europe). Failure to verify input voltage
compatibility can lead to hardware damage or operational issues.
Option B (BIOS language support): Incorrect. While language support may be helpful, it is not critical
for hardware deployment across regions.
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Option C (Supply chain security): Incorrect. This refers to ensuring secure sourcing of components but
does not directly impact deployment.
Option D (Power efficiency): Incorrect. Power efficiency may be important for energy savings but is
not relevant to regional compatibility.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 3.5 (Power supply requirements)
Question: 103
A technician needs to troubleshoot a user’s smartphone that will not connect to its wireless
provider’s service. Which of the following should the technician check first?
- SIM card
- Network settings
- Subscription plan
- Bluetooth connection
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question: 104
A user routinely connects and disconnects multiple devices from a laptop. Which of the following
options should a technician recommend to facilitate ease of user mobility?
- Serial interfaces
- Docking station
- Network switch
- USB hub
Answer: B
Explanation:
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Reasoning: A docking station is designed to provide a central connection point for multiple
peripherals, such as monitors, keyboards, mice, and network cables. It allows users to quickly
connect or disconnect all devices by simply docking or undocking their laptop, improving mobility
and reducing wear and tear on individual ports.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A . Serial interfaces:
Serial interfaces are outdated and rarely used in modern laptops or peripherals. They are not
practical for facilitating the connection of multiple devices.
C . Network switch:
A network switch is used to connect multiple devices to a network, but it does not simplify the
connection of peripherals to a laptop.
D . USB hub:
A USB hub can extend the number of available USB ports but lacks the full functionality of a docking
station, such as video output or Ethernet connectivity.
Practical Example:
A user with a laptop, external monitors, keyboard, and mouse can use a docking station to connect
all devices with a single action, instead of plugging in each device manually.
CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:
Objective 5.2: Explain device interfaces, connection types, and usage of docking stations.
Question: 105
Which of the following best characterizes the use of a virtual machine as a sandbox?
- Run an application on multiple workstations without installation.
- Explore how an application behaves in a different environment
- Migrate a currently used legacy application from physical to virtual
- Create a firewall where the sandbox acts as a perimeter network.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A sandbox in virtualization allows testing an application in an isolated environment to observe its
behavior without affecting the host system.
Why Not A (Run an application on multiple workstations): This describes application virtualization,
not sandboxing.
Why Not C (Migrate a legacy application): This is about virtualization for legacy support, not testing.
Why Not D (Create a firewall): A firewall does not act as a sandbox for application testing.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 4.2, virtualization and sandboxing.
Question: 106
An employee who travels worldwide wants a workstation to perform the same whether the
workstation is in the corporate office environment or elsewhere. Which of the following should a
technician implement?
- Public cloud
- VDI
- SSH
- SaaS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question: 107
When turning on a workstation, a technician observes the following message:
“Bootable device not found.”
The technician verifies the correct boot order in the BIOS. Which of the following steps should the
technician take next?
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- Reformat the HDD.
- Run HDD diagnostics.
- Reseat the RAM.
- Replace the HDD.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If the system reports“Bootable device not found”, and the BIOS is configured correctly, the next step
is torun diagnostics on the hard driveto check for physical or logical failure. It could be a sign of
afailing drive or corrupt boot sector.
Option A:Reformatting the drive would erase data not a diagnostic step.
Option C:RAM does not affect whether a drive is bootable.
Option D:Replacing the drive should only be doneafter diagnostics confirm failure.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to storage devices.
Question: 108
Which of the following is an advantage of using a hybrid cloud instead of a public cloud?
- Ability to reduce management overhead
- Ability to use cross-platform virtualization
- Ability to meet data residency requirements
- Ability to leverage IaaS and PaaS
Answer: C
Explanation:
A hybrid cloud combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud services. One significant
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advantage is that it allows organizations to keep sensitive data in a private environment to meet
regulatory or data residency requirements, while still utilizing the scalability and cost-efficiency of
the public cloud for other workloads. This ensures compliance with legal mandates about data
location.
Reference: “CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide” by Quentin Docter – Chapter 8, “Virtualization and
Cloud Computing”, page 488. Also supported in CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives220-1201under section
4.1.
Question: 109
A group of friends is gathering in a room to play video games. One of the friends has a game server.
Which of the following network types should the group use so they can all connect to the same
server and the internet?
- SAN
- MAN
- LAN
- PAN
Answer: C
Explanation:
The appropriate network type for this scenario is a Local Area Network (LAN), which is designed for
small, localized networks, such as within a single building or room. LANs are ideal for gaming
because they provide high-speed, low-latency connections.
Option A (SAN): Incorrect. A Storage Area Network is used for data storage, not for gaming or general
networking.
Option B (MAN): Incorrect. A Metropolitan Area Network covers a city or campus, far exceeding the
scope needed for a gaming setup in a single room.
Option D (PAN): Incorrect. A Personal Area Network is designed for a single user, such as Bluetooth
devices, and would not support multiple devices connecting to a game server.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Objectives: 2.7 (Compare and contrast network types and features)
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Question: 110
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that has random BSOD alerts and intermittently freezes
during normal use. Performance degrades as the day goes on. No new software or hardware changes
have been implemented. Freezing occurs under performance-intensive operations. Which of the
following hardware components is most likely at fault?
- Video card
- HDD
- RAM module
- TPM
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step
Random BSODs (Blue Screen of Death), intermittent freezing, and degraded performance under load
are common symptoms of failing or faulty RAM (Random Access Memory). Here’s the reasoning:
RAM Module (Correct Answer):
Faulty or failing RAM can cause random BSODs due to memory errors when the system attempts to
read or write to corrupted memory locations.
Intermittent freezing, especially under performance-intensive operations, can occur because the
CPU relies heavily on RAM for active processing tasks.
Over time, heat generated during usage can exacerbate RAM instability, leading to progressively
worse performance throughout the day.
Solution: The technician should run a memory diagnostic tool, such as Windows Memory Diagnostic
or MemTest86, to confirm if the RAM is at fault.
Incorrect Options:
A . Video Card: A faulty video card can cause graphical glitches, screen artifacts, or crashes, but it is
unlikely to cause system-wide performance degradation and random freezing under normal
operations unless the issue is specific to GPU-intensive tasks (e.g., gaming or video rendering).
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B . HDD: A failing hard drive can cause system slowdowns and freezing, but it typically produces
other symptoms such as read/write errors, boot failures, or clicking sounds. HDD issues do not
usually cause BSODs unless critical system files are corrupted.
D . TPM (Trusted Platform Module): A TPM is a hardware-based security module used for encryption
and secure authentication. It does not affect performance or cause BSODs or freezing under normal
operation.
Key Takeaway:
The symptoms described (random BSODs, intermittent freezing, and degraded performance under
load) are most likely caused by faulty or failing RAM. Memory diagnostic tools should be used to
confirm the issue.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 5.2 – Troubleshooting problems
related to motherboards, RAM, CPUs, and power.
Question: 111
Each floor at a new corporate facility will have four printers available for all users to print from AH of
the printers will be connected with RJ45 and not joined to a domain Which of the following needs to
be set up to accomplish this task? (Select two).
- Printer shares
- DHCP server
- Print server
- Printer subnet
- SMB configuration
- Printer Wi-Fi settings
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
To allow multiple users to print to networked printers:
Printer shares enable users to access printers shared on the network.
Print servers manage print jobs and provide centralized control of printing.
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Why Not B (DHCP server): DHCP is unrelated to print management.
Why Not D (Printer subnet): Subnets group devices but don’t manage printing.
Why Not E (SMB configuration): SMB is for file sharing, not specifically print management.
Why Not F (Printer Wi-Fi settings): These settings are irrelevant since the printers use Ethernet.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer configuration.
Question: 112
Which of the forming connector types would best suit a company that experiences a large volume of
internet traffic?
- USB 3.1
- Quad-shielded RG11 coax
- SATA3.0
- Unshielded plenum RJ45
Answer: B
Explanation:
RG11 coaxial cable with quad shielding is designed to handle large volumes of internet traffic,
providing excellent resistance to interference and high bandwidth capacity.
Why Not A (USB 3.1): USB 3.1 is used for connecting peripherals, not for high-volume internet traffic.
Why Not C (SATA3.0): SATA is used for internal data storage connections, not for network traffic.
Why Not D (Unshielded plenum RJ45): While RJ45 cables are commonly used, unshielded cables are
prone to interference and are not ideal for high-volume traffic.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.1, cable types and their characteristics.
Question: 113
A technician is troubleshooting stylus issues on identical, company-provided tablets. Users can
purchase their own accessories. Some users have no issues, but others report that their styluses
charge intermittently and die frequently. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
Questions and Answers PDF 88/419
- Certain cases are causing charging issues.
- The tablets need to be updated.
- Some of the tablets have manufacturing defects.
- The malfunctioning styluses need firmware updates.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most likely cause isthird-party or ill-fitting casesobstructing the contact between the stylus and
the tablet charging mechanism. Some cases may not be designed with stylus charging in mind,
particularly if users are purchasing their own accessories.
Option B:A software update might fix OS-related issues, but would not typically affect physical
charging.
Option C:If some devices had defects, the issue would likely be consistent, not isolated to some
users.
Option D:Firmware issues could be a factor but are less likely than physical obstructions when users
are using different accessories.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, configure settings and use cases for laptops and mobile devices.
Question: 114
A technician has just installed a new SSD into a computer, but the drive is not appearing. Which of
the following is most likely the reason’s?
- The SSD is faulty and should be replaced by the manufacturer
- The SSD has not been properly formatted and is not readable
- The SSD is incompatible with the motherboard
- The SSD has not boon installed properly and should be reseated
Answer: D
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Explanation:
Improper seating is the most common reason an SSD isn’t recognized. Ensuring it is correctly
connected resolves the issue.
Why Not A (Faulty SSD): A faulty SSD is possible but less likely than an installation issue.
Why Not B (Not formatted): Formatting affects data usability, not drive detection.
Why Not C (Incompatibility): SSD compatibility issues are rare with modern hardware.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.3, storage troubleshooting.
Question: 115
A salesperson is unable to reach the internet from a home office PC A support technician wants to
verify the router is receiving a valid public IP address Which of the Wowing is a valid public IP address
in this scenario?
- 10.254.128.11
- 66.157.195.20
- 172.16.0.30
- 192.168 1.50
Answer: B
Explanation:
A valid public IP address must fall outside the private IP address ranges:
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
66.157.195.20 is outside these ranges, making it a public IP address.
Why Not A, C, D: These IPs fall within private IP address ranges.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, IP addressing.
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Question: 116
A customer reports a problem connecting to network resources. After asking open-ended questions,
the technician determines the issue likely exists on the remote server. Which of the following should
the technician do next?
- Document the findings.
- Test the theory
- Gather information
- Establish a plan of action
Answer: B
Explanation:
After determining the issue is likely on the remote server, the technician should test the theory to
confirm the root cause before proceeding.
Why Not A (Document the findings): Documentation comes after confirming the issue.
Why Not C (Gather information): Information gathering is already completed.
Why Not D (Establish a plan of action): This is done after confirming the issue.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology.
Question: 117
Which of the following technologies best allows a phone to connect to a point-of-sale terminal for
wireless payments?
- Bluetooth
- NFC
- Wi-Fi
- Cellular
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Answer: B
Explanation:
Near-field communication (NFC) is a short-distance wireless communication method widely used in
mobile payment systems like Apple Pay and Google Pay. Simply placing the device near a compatible
terminal initiates the payment process.
Reference: “Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide” – Chapter 24, page
1022.
Question: 118
A new directive mandates the use of a security component to securely allow users to authenticate to
systems, access sensitive data, and enter the office. The component must provide an additional
factor of authentication alongside user accounts and cannot be something the user o Which of the
Mowing components best meets these requirements?
- Fingerprint reader
- Smart card
- Secure token
- NFC scanner
Answer: B
Explanation:
A smart card provides an additional factor of authentication by storing secure credentials, such as
certificates, that cannot be guessed or replicated. It complements user accounts and is “something
you have”.
Why Not A (Fingerprint reader): This is “something you are”, but the scenario specifically requires a
physical token.
Why Not C (Secure token): Secure tokens are also valid but may not integrate as seamlessly into
multi-factor authentication for physical and system access.
Why Not D (NFC scanner): An NFC scanner is a device and not a token itself; it reads cards or other
credentials.
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CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, access controls.
Question: 119
A network administrator must ensure that a printer will still be assigned a specific IP address even if
all addresses are depleted. Which of the following network configuration concepts is this describing?
- VLAN
- Lease
- Reservation
- Exclusion
Answer: C
Explanation:
A DHCP reservation binds a specific MAC address to an IP address so the device always receives the
same IP from the DHCP server. This ensures network devices like printers maintain consistent
connectivity and availability even when the IP pool is low.
Reference: “CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide” by Quentin Docter – Chapter 18, page 1252.
Question: 120
A company needs to develop a disaster recovery solution based on virtual machines. Which of the
following service models is the most suitable?
- Infrastructure as a Service
- Security as a Service
- Platform as a Service
- Software as a Service
Answer: A
Explanation:
Questions and Answers PDF 93/419
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)providesvirtualized computing resources over the internetsuch as
servers, storage, and networking. It allows a business to quickly spin up virtual machines and is ideal
fordisaster recoveryand scalable IT infrastructure needs.
Option B:SecaaS focuses on cloud-delivered security, not infrastructure.
Option C:PaaS offers development environments, not full virtual infrastructure.
Option D:SaaS delivers applications over the internet (e.g., email, CRM) not for disaster recovery.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.
===========
Question: 121
Each lime a user ties to print, the paper becomes stuck at the last stage of the print job and the user
has to poll me paper out of the printer. Which of the following is me most likely cause?
- Rollers
- Tray assembly
- Toner
- Printhead
Answer: A
Explanation:
If paper gets stuck at the last stage of printing, the rollers responsible for moving the paper through
the printer are likely worn out or dirty.
Why Not B (Tray assembly): The tray assembly manages paper loading, not feeding during the print
process.
Why Not C (Toner): Toner is unrelated to paper jams.
Why Not D (Printhead): Printheads manage ink/toner distribution, not paper movement.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer troubleshooting.
Questions and Answers PDF 94/419
Question: 122
Users working with large files back up the files to external hard drives. One user’s files take longer to
back up than other users’ files. The user has tried backing up the files to other users’ drives with the
same results. Which of the following steps should the technician take first to correct this issue?
- Replace the hard drive’s USB cable.
- Defragment the user’s external hard drive.
- Update the storage drivers on the user’s system.
- Instruct the user to compress the files.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If a hard drive is heavily fragmented, file read/write operations can take significantly longer, causing
slow backup speeds. Defragmenting the drive organizes the data for more efficient access.
Why Not A (Replace the hard drive’s USB cable): A faulty cable would typically cause disconnections
or errors, not just slower speeds.
Why Not C (Update the storage drivers): This might help if the issue is with system drivers, but the
described symptoms point to a fragmentation issue.
Why Not D (Compress the files): Compression reduces file size but does not address the root cause of
the slow backups.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, storage troubleshooting.
Question: 123
Which of the following devices is used to implement ACL polices for an environment?
- Managed switch
- Gateway
- Repeater
- Firewall
Questions and Answers PDF 95/419
Answer: D
Explanation:
A firewall implements ACLs (Access Control Lists) to filter traffic and enforce policies based on rules
such as IP address, port, or protocol.
Why Not A (Managed switch): A managed switch supports VLANs and QoS but does not enforce ACLs
at the network perimeter.
Why Not B (Gateway): Gateways connect networks and translate protocols but don’t typically
implement ACLs.
Why Not C (Repeater): Repeaters extend signal range but don’t enforce policies.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.2, firewall concepts.
Question: 124
A customer reports that the output from their thermal receipt printer has vertical white lines. Which
of the following would most likely resolve this issue?
- Replacing the ink cartridge
- Using the correct paper type
- Installing a maintenance kit
- Cleaning the heating element
Answer: D
Explanation:
Thermal printerscreate images using aheated print headon specially coated thermal paper. Vertical
white lines indicate thatpart of the heating element is dirty or blocked, preventing heat transfer to
the paper. Cleaning the print head (heating element) will restore full functionality.
Option A:Thermal printers donot use ink or toner, so this is not applicable.
Option B:Wrong paper could cause blank output, but consistent vertical lines point to the print head.
Questions and Answers PDF 96/419
Option C:Maintenance kits are typically for laser printers, not thermal printers.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.
Question: 125
Which of the following describes the function of an injector?
- To provide only data connectivity
- To supply power across a cable
- To improve wireless performance
- To extend a network connection
Answer: B
Explanation:
A PoE injector is used to add power to an Ethernet cable, enabling the cable to deliver both power
and data. This is crucial when connecting to PoE-enabled devices like IP cameras or wireless access
points that are far from power outlets.
Reference: “CompTIA A+ Complete Practice Tests” by Jeff T. Parker – Chapter 10, Question 77, page
585.
Question: 126
Which of the following is the best to use when testing a file for potential malware?
- Multitenancy
- Test development
- Cross-platform virtualization
- Sandbox
Answer: D
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Explanation:
A sandbox is a secure, isolated environment used to test potentially harmful software or code. It
prevents the software from affecting the main system, allowing safe malware testing. Thismethod is
standard in cybersecurity best practices.
Reference: “CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide” by Mike Meyers – Chapter 28, page
1230.
Question: 127
A technician wants to upgrade a computer to a new Windows version. The Windows Upgrade
Advisor states that the computer is not compatible with the new Windows version due to a lack of
TPM 2.0 support. Which of the following should the technician do next?
- Enable the module in the UEFI BIOS.
- Install an HSM in the computer.
- Perform a clean Install of the new Windows version.
- Implement BitLocker on the computer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
TPM 2.0 (Trusted Platform Module) is often disabled by default in the UEFI BIOS. Enabling it is
necessary to meet the requirements for certain Windows installations, including Windows 11.
Why Not B (Install an HSM): A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a separate device used for
cryptographic functions and is not related to TPM on the motherboard.
Why Not C (Perform a clean install): A clean installation will not bypass the TPM 2.0 requirement.
Why Not D (Implement BitLocker): BitLocker requires TPM but does not resolve its absence or lack of
activation.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, BIOS/UEFI configuration.
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Question: 128
A user reports that the printouts from a laser printer have lines and smudges on them. The printer is
also intermittently misfeeding the paper. Which of the following components should a technician
replace to address this issue?
- Fuser
- Maintenance kit
- Corona wire
- Toner cartridge
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amaintenance kitfor a laser printer often includesrollers, fuser, and other partsthat wear out over
time. If the printer issmudging and misfeeding, it’s a sign thatmultiple components are failing, which
a maintenance kit is designed to resolve.
Option A (Fuser):May cause smudging if it’s not heating correctly, but it won’t resolve paper misfeeds
alone.
Option C (Corona wire):Can cause poor image quality if dirty but doesn’t affect paper feeding.
Option D (Toner cartridge):Can cause streaks if defective, but not paper feed issues.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.
Question: 129
Which of the following services is used to allocate IP addresses in an enterprise-wide environment?
- DNS
- Syslog
- Telnet
- DHCP
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Answer: D
Explanation:
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service used to automatically assign IP
addresses and other network configuration details (such as subnet masks and default gateways) to
devices on an enterprise-wide network.
Why Not A (DNS): DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not allocate IP addresses.
Why Not B (Syslog): Syslog is used for logging system events, not IP address management.
Why Not C (Telnet): Telnet is a protocol for remote access, not for IP allocation.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DHCP concepts.
Question: 130
The output from a dot matrix printer has become lighter over time. Which of the following should a
technician do to fix the issue?
- Clean the printhead.
- Replace the ribbon.
- Install a maintenance kit.
- Calibrate the alignment.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dot matrix printersuse aninked ribbonthat physically contacts the paper through tiny pins. Over time,
the ribbon wears out or dries up, resulting infaded or light print output. Replacing the ribbon
restores print quality.
Option A:Cleaning helps with image clarity, not ink density.
Option C:Maintenance kits apply to laser printers, not dot matrix.
Option D:Calibration affects print position, not darkness.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Questions and Answers PDF 100/419
Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.
===========
Question: 131
A company needs to keep a record of tasks performed by an application. Which of the following
should the company most likely implement as part of a solution?
- Fileshare
- Syslog
- Database
- SAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
Syslog is used to log system events and tasks performed by applications, providing a centralized
record of activity.
Why Not A (Fileshare): Fileshares store files but are not designed for event logging.
Why Not C (Database): Databases can store logs but are not a logging mechanism themselves.
Why Not D (SAN): A SAN is a storage solution, not a logging tool.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, system monitoring and logging.
Question: 132
A technician recently updated the firmware on a dual-BIOS motherboard. Following the update, the
system has been stuck in a boot loop and cannot start an OS from any internal or external device. The
technician cannot access the UEFI menu either. Which of the following should the technician do
next?
- Enable the secondary configuration.
- Downgrade the firmware via USB.
- Start a warranty repair of the motherboard.
Questions and Answers PDF 101/419
- Reapply thermal paste to the CPU.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dual-BIOS motherboards contain two firmware chips. If theprimary BIOS becomescorrupted, the
system canfailover to the secondary BIOS. Most boards allow manual enabling of the secondary BIOS
via a physical switch or jumper.
Option B:Downgrading firmware may not be possible if the system won’t POST or access UEFI.
Option C:Not necessary until both BIOS chips are non-functional.
Option D:Thermal paste affects heat dissipation, not BIOS/boot behavior.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and
power.
Question: 133
A customer reports that a workstation has no internet connectivity. A technician confirms the port is
disabled. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the issue?
- Patch panel
- Physical NIC
- Managed switch
- Stand-alone firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
A managed switch allows an administrator to enable or disable individual ports as part of network
security and management. If a port on a managed switch has been disabled, the device connected to
that port will lose connectivity, which matches the scenario described.
Questions and Answers PDF 102/419
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives – Domain 2.0 Networking – Objective
2.2: Compare and contrast common networking hardware devices.
Question: 134
A user is having issues when charging a device with a Lightning cable. The cable is not recognized
when it is plugged into the device. This issue is usually resolved by flipping the cable over. This issue
does not occur with other devices of the same type. Which of the following would most likely cause
the issue?
- The device needs to be restarted.
- The battery may be swelling and needs inspection.
- The cable is failing and needs to be replaced
- The charging port is dirty or damaged
Answer: D
Explanation:
If flipping the cable helps but the problem is isolated to this device (not others of the same type), the
most likely cause is a dirty or damaged charging port on the device itself. Dirt or debris inside the
port can prevent a good electrical connection, causing the cable to work intermittently.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives – Domain 1.0 Mobile Devices –
Objective 1.6: Troubleshoot common mobile device issues.
Question: 135
A technician is setting up a scan-to-SMB function on a multifunction printer. Which of the following
connection types should the technician configure?
- Email server
- SFTP connection
- Network share
- Print services
Questions and Answers PDF 103/419
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scan-to-SMB feature allows the printer to send scanned documents to a shared folder (SMB
share) on the network. Setting up a network share enables the device to securely and conveniently
save files for user access.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives – Domain 2.0 Networking – Objective
2.7: Compare and contrast internet connection types, network types, and their features.
Question: 136
Which of the following internet connection types is the best for extremely high data transfer with
symmetrical upload and download speeds?
- DSL
- Cellular
- Fiber
- Satellite
Answer: C
Explanation:
Fiber optic connections provide the highest data transfer rates and symmetrical upload and
download speeds. This makes fiber the ideal choice for applications requiring high-speed
connectivity, such as video conferencing, large file transfers, and cloud-based workflows.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives – Domain 2.0 Networking – Objective
2.7: Compare and contrast internet connection types, network types, and their features.
Question: 137
Which of the following networking devices is used to create a mesh network?
- Modem
- DSL
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- Access point
- ONT
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mesh networks rely on multiple access points (or mesh nodes) to create a seamless, self-healing
network. Each access point communicates with others to extend coverage and improve reliability
without requiring a wired backbone for each AP.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives – Domain 2.0 Networking – Objective
2.4: Compare and contrast wireless networking protocols.
Question: 138
A user purchases a new mobile phone and tries to connect it to the corporate communications and
email applications without success. Which of the following should a technician do to allow the phone
to connect?
- Configure biometric security settings.
- Turn on LTE hotspot connectivity.
- Enroll the device in the MDM software.
- Complete the company’s BYOD training process.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) enrollment ensures that mobile devices meet security and
access policies required by the corporate network. By enrolling the device in MDM, the technician
can apply necessary configurations and enable corporate app access.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives – Domain 1.0 Mobile Devices –
Objective 1.5: Compare and contrast methods for securing mobile devices.
Questions and Answers PDF 105/419
Question: 139
Which of the following is the ability to automatically increase and decrease instances based on
demand?
- Availability
- Scalability
- Multitenancy
- Elasticity
Answer: D
Explanation:
Elasticity in cloud computing refers to the ability of a system to automatically allocate and release
resources (such as CPU, RAM, or virtual machines) as workload demands change. This feature is key
to ensuring that resources are used efficiently without manual intervention.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives – Domain 4.0 Virtualization and Cloud
Computing – Objective 4.2: Summarize cloud computing concepts.
Question: 140
A user is having trouble with the location services on their smartphone. Location-based applications
show incorrect positions when the user is traveling. This issue affects the user’s ability to navigate
and use location-dependent applications. Which of the following is the best way to resolve this
issue?
- Downloading a third-party mapping application
- Resetting the network settings
- Enabling Wi-Fi to assist GPS
- Restarting the smartphone
Answer: C
Explanation:
Questions and Answers PDF 106/419
Wi-Fi assistance in mobile devices helps improve location accuracy by using nearby wireless
networks to triangulate the device’s position, even when GPS signals are weak (like indoors or in
dense areas).
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives – Domain 1.0 Mobile Devices –
Objective 1.6: Troubleshoot common issues with mobile devices.
Question: 141
Which of the following is related to the creation of a secured communication channel between
workstations in different locations and is supported by credentials for authentication?
- DHCP
- CNAME
- VLAN
- VPN
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates an encrypted, secure tunnel across a public or untrusted
network. It uses authentication credentials to ensure that only authorized users can connect, keeping
data safe from interception.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives – Domain 2.0 Networking – Objective
2.3: Compare and contrast various types of networks.
Question: 142
Which of the following ports is commonly used for remote desktop connections?
- 137
- 445
- 3389
- 4443
Questions and Answers PDF 107/419
Answer: C
Explanation:
Port 3389 is used by the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) for remote desktop connections in Windows
environments. This port allows remote control and management of systems across the network.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives – Domain 2.0 Networking – Objective
2.2: Compare and contrast common networking hardware devices and ports.
Question: 143
A company is testing the latest model of a laptop. After turning on the laptop, there is a noticeable
burning smell. Which of the following steps should a technician take to troubleshoot the laptop
issue? (Select two).
- Turn it off and disconnect all power sources.
- Submit an emergency request to the local facilities manager.
- Check for foreign objects, liquid spills, and internal damage.
- Contact the vendor and submit a return request.
- Remove the device from the MDM.
- Try an alternate AC adapter.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
When a technician encounters a burning smell, it is a critical safety issue. The first response must be
to immediately power down and disconnect the device from all power sources to prevent electric
shock, fire, or further hardware damage.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common
hardware problems:
“Signs of electrical issues such as burning smells, smoke, or sparks require an immediate shutdown
of the system and disconnection from any power source.”
After ensuring safety, the technician should inspect the hardware for visible signs of damage:
Questions and Answers PDF 108/419
From the same Objective (4.1):
“Inspect for foreign objects, liquid damage, or burnt components. These can cause short circuits or
thermal events that may damage the motherboard or other internal components.”
These steps are standard practice in the industry to ensure safe and accurate diagnosis of faulty
devices. Trying a different adapter (Option F) may make the problem worse, and contacting vendors
(Option D) comes after initial safety and inspection.
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Hardware Problems
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.0 – Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Question: 144
A technician needs to figure out why a laser printer is intermittently not feeding paper to print. The
technician verifies the issue by running several copy-and-print tests. Which of the following should
the technician do next?
- Update the printer drivers.
- Select the correct paper size.
- Clean the pickup rollers.
- Replace the toner cartridge.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a laser printer intermittently fails to feed paper, the most common hardware cause is worn or
dirty pickup rollers. These rollers grab the paper from the tray and move it into the printer. Over
time, dust, paper debris, or worn rubber reduces their effectiveness, causing feeding issues.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshoot printing
problems:
“If the printer is not picking up paper correctly or is experiencing paper jams, check and clean or
replace the pickup rollers and separation pads as these are responsible for feeding paper into the
Questions and Answers PDF 109/419
print path.”
Other options like updating drivers, selecting paper size, or replacing toner will not resolve a
mechanical paper feed problem.
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Printing Problems
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3
============
Question: 145
Which of the following has the best penetration through physical objects, such as walls?
- 2.4GHz
- 5GHz
- 6GHz
- NFC
Answer: A
Explanation:
2.4GHz Wi-Fi signals have better penetration through walls and other obstacles compared to 5GHz
and 6GHz. Lower frequency waves (like 2.4GHz) travel farther and are less absorbed by physical
barriers.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.5 – Compare and contrast wireless
networking protocols:
“The 2.4GHz frequency band offers greater range and better penetration through walls and obstacles
than higher frequencies like 5GHz and 6GHz. Higher frequencies provide faster speeds but are more
easily absorbed by walls.”
NFC (Near Field Communication) is not a Wi-Fi technology and works only over very short distances
(a few centimeters).
Verified Source:
Questions and Answers PDF 110/419
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Networking
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.5
============
Question: 146
Which of the following can be used to logically segment networks?
- MAC
- VLAN
- NIC
- DSL
Answer: B
Explanation:
A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a network technology used to logically segment a physical
network into multiple distinct broadcast domains, even if they share the same hardware.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Compare and contrast common
networking hardware:
“VLANs allow network administrators to segment a network logically, isolating broadcast traffic and
improving security and management, regardless of the physical network layout.”
Other options explained:
MAC (Media Access Control) is a hardware address, not a segmentation method.
NIC (Network Interface Card) is network hardware, not for logical segmentation.
DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is an internet connection type.
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Concepts
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2
Questions and Answers PDF 111/419
Question: 147
After troubleshooting a computer’s connectivity, the network team determines there is a portmapping issue. After plugging the patch cable into a different port, the issue persists. Which of the
following troubleshooting steps should a technician take next to resolve the issue?
- Convert the patch cable to a crossover cable.
- Test the patch cable from the computer to the network closet.
- Verify the length of the patch cable meets current standards.
- Replace the patch cable from the device to the wall.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When port issues persist after moving to a different switch port, the next logical troubleshooting step
is to test the patch cable. Faulty or damaged cables are a common cause of network connectivity
problems. Using a cable tester between the computer and the network closet verifies the integrity of
the cable and rules out a physical layer issue.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.2 – Troubleshoot wired and wireless
networks:
“If a device continues to experience connectivity issues after switching ports, test the cabling with a
cable tester to check for continuity, shorts, or pinout issues before replacing hardware.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Network
Connectivity
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.2
============
Question: 148
Which of the following statements best summarize managed vs unmanaged switches? (Select two).
- Unmanaged switches are generally more expensive
- Unmanaged switches have more security capabilities
Questions and Answers PDF 112/419
- Unmanaged switches start working as soon as they are plugged in to the network
- Managed switches have more features
- Managed switches require no configuration
- Managed switches consume less power
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Unmanaged switches require no configuration they simply need to be plugged in and start working
immediately, making them ideal for simple network setups.
Managed switches provide advanced features such as VLANs, SNMP monitoring, port security, and
traffic management, but require configuration.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Compare and contrast common
networking hardware:
“Unmanaged switches operate out of the box with no configuration and are designed for simple
connectivity. Managed switches allow for configuration, monitoring, and management of network
traffic and security.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Hardware
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2
============
Question: 149
A user is testing a new OS that is contained on a USB drive. The user wants the new OS to load
automatically when the computer is turned on. Which of the following should the user configure?
- BIOS password
- Trusted Platform Module
- USB permissions
- Boot options
Questions and Answers PDF 113/419
Answer: D
Explanation:
To boot from a USB drive, the user must configure the boot order in the system BIOS/UEFI to
prioritize the USB device. This setting tells the computer to load the operating system from the USB
device on startup.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.5 – Configure BIOS/UEFI settings:
“The boot order determines the sequence in which the system firmware attempts to find an OS to
boot. Setting USB as the first boot device allows the computer to boot from a USB drive.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: BIOS/UEFI Configuration
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.5
============
Question: 150
A technician is setting up a locally hosted environment for internal developers who need concurrent
access to a wide array of test OSs. Which of the following would best fulfill this requirement?
- Hypervisor
- SaaS platform
- Multiboot server computer
- Sandbox
Answer: A
Explanation:
A hypervisor allows multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single physical host,
making it the ideal solution for providing concurrent access to different test environments.
Developers can use virtual machines (VMs) for testing and development.
Questions and Answers PDF 114/419
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Compare and contrast cloud
computing concepts:
“A hypervisor is software that enables multiple operating systems to run on a single host as virtual
machines. This is commonly used in development and testing environments for flexibility and
isolation.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
Question: 151
An employee’s screen keeps flashing. Sometimes the picture goes out and comes back. The
employee checks the power cord and confirms the device is plugged in fully. Which of the following
should a technician check for first?
- Loose video cable
- Failing graphics card
- Conflicting drivers
- Swollen motherboard capacitor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Intermittent display issues, such as a screen flashing on and off, are most commonly caused by a
loose or faulty video cable connection. If the power cable is confirmed secure, the next logical step is
to check the video (data) cable between the monitor and the computer.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common
hardware problems:
“Common video issues include intermittent display or loss of picture. The most likely causes are a
loose or faulty video cable or connector. Check all cable connections before troubleshooting internal
components.”
Verified Source:
Questions and Answers PDF 115/419
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Hardware Problems
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
============
Question: 152
A user reports that the print quality of their desk printer is poor. A technician replaces the ink
cartridge, but this does not resolve the issue. Which of the following should the technician do next?
- Replace the pickup rollers
- Clean the printheads
- Switch the paper type
- Change the ribbon
Answer: B
Explanation:
If print quality remains poor after replacing the ink cartridge, the next step is to clean the printheads.
Printheads can become clogged with dried ink, especially in inkjet printers, causing streaks or faded
output.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshoot printing
problems:
“Poor print quality after replacing cartridges is commonly caused by clogged or dirty printheads. Use
the printer’s cleaning cycle or manually clean the printheads as needed.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3
============
Question: 153
An end user reports that their laptop shuts down when they undock it. Even when using a new
Questions and Answers PDF 116/419
charging cable, the issue persists. Which of the following should the technician do next?
- Flash the BIOS
- Update the drivers
- Try a different charger
- Replace the battery
Answer: D
Explanation:
If a laptop shuts down when undocked and remains powered off even with a new charging cable, the
internal battery is likely faulty and cannot hold a charge. Replacing the battery is the next
troubleshooting step.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common
hardware problems:
“If a laptop only works when docked or connected to AC power, and a replacement cable does not
resolve the issue, the internal battery may need to be replaced.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Mobile Devices
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
============
Question: 154
A company provides cell phones to employees who travel internationally. An employee brings their
phone to the help desk so the necessary equipment can be installed. However, the technician cannot
install any new hardware on the phone. Which of the following will the technician require so the
phone can connect to a different provider?
- USB-C
- SD card
- eSIM
Questions and Answers PDF 117/419
- MDM
Answer: C
Explanation:
An eSIM (embedded SIM) allows users to change carriers and provision new cellular service without
installing any physical hardware. It is managed via software and is ideal for international travelers
who need to switch providers quickly.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Install and configure mobile
device network connectivity:
“eSIMs provide carrier flexibility by enabling remote provisioning and profile switching, making it
possible to connect to different networks without a physical SIM card.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Mobile Devices
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3
Question: 155
Which of the following internet connection types provides the fastest speeds and greatest coverage
in less populated areas with minimal infrastructure?
- Fiber
- Cable
- DSL
- Cellular
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cellular networks offer broad coverage in rural or less populated areas where laying fiber, cable, or
DSL lines may not be feasible or cost-effective. Cellular broadband (4G LTE/5G) provides fast speeds
using existing mobile network infrastructure.
Questions and Answers PDF 118/419
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.7 – Compare and contrast Internet
connection types:
“Cellular connections offer high speed and extensive coverage, especially in areas where other wired
infrastructure may not exist or be practical.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Internet Connections
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.7
============
Question: 156
Which of the following ports should a technician disable to increase the security of remote
connectivity?
- 22
- 23
- 25
- 53
Answer: B
Explanation:
Port 23 is used by Telnet, an unencrypted remote connection protocol that poses significant security
risks. Disabling Telnet and using secure alternatives like SSH (port 22) is best practice.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 – Common ports and protocols:
“Port 23 (Telnet) provides unencrypted remote access and should be disabled to increase security.
Use SSH (port 22) for secure remote connections.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Ports and Protocols
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1
Questions and Answers PDF 119/419
============
Question: 157
A network operations analyst receives an automated alert regarding a server with an array. The
analyst walks over to the server and sees a blinking orange light at the hard disk bay. The server is
configured for RAID 1. Which of the following should the analyst do to resolve this issue?
- Change the array to RAID 0.
- Undo the array and create a new one.
- Update RAID card firmware.
- Replace the hard disk and rebuild the array.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A blinking orange light typically indicates a failed hard drive in the RAID array. In RAID 1 (mirroring),
you can replace the failed drive and rebuild the array without data loss.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – RAID configuration and
troubleshooting:
“In the event of a hard drive failure in RAID 1, replace the failed disk and allow the array to rebuild
using the remaining mirrored disk.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: RAID and Storage
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4
============
Question: 158
A technician upgrades a PC with two DIMMs, for a total of 32GB. After installing the two DIMMs, the
user notices the OS is reporting only 16GB. Which of the following tasks should the technician
perform to resolve the issue in the most rapid, cost-effective way possible?
- Roll back recent system updates
Questions and Answers PDF 120/419
- Reinstall RAM in different slots.
- Update the OS to the latest version
- Replace the faulty motherboard
Answer: B
Explanation:
If newly installed RAM is not fully recognized, the most likely cause is incorrect installation or
incompatible slots. Reseating or reinstalling the RAM modules in the correct slots can quickly resolve
the issue without extra cost.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Install and configure PC
components:
“If memory is not detected, check installation and reseat modules. Ensure they are placed in the
correct, matched slots for dual-channel operation.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Installation
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
============
Question: 159
A company wants to have fast read speeds for its locally stored data. Which of the following
configurations has the lowest cost to fulfill this requirement?
- RAID 0
- RAID 1
- RAID 5
- RAID 10
Answer: A
Explanation:
Questions and Answers PDF 121/419
RAID 0 (striping) provides the fastest read (and write) speeds at the lowest cost, as all disk capacity is
used for storage and performance. However, it offers no redundancy.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – RAID types:
“RAID 0 stripes data across multiple disks, offering the best performance and lowest cost but no fault
tolerance.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: RAID Levels
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4
Question: 160
Which of the following devices has ACL capabilities?
- PoE injector
- DSL
- Firewall
- Unmanaged switch
Answer: C
Explanation:
Firewalls are specifically designed to monitor, filter, and control network traffic using Access Control
Lists (ACLs). ACLs define which traffic is allowed or denied based on parameters like IP address,
protocol, or port.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Networking hardware and security:
“Firewalls use access control lists (ACLs) to allow or deny traffic based on rules. Unmanaged switches
and PoE injectors do not support ACLs.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Security Devices
Questions and Answers PDF 122/419
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2
============
Question: 161
A user would like to connect a laptop to a monitor, keyboard, and mouse when in the office. The user
prefers to use as few cables as possible. Which of the following would best achieve that goal?
- Bluetooth
- Managed switch
- Docking station
- Near-field communication
Answer: C
Explanation:
A docking station allows users to connect multiple peripherals (monitor, keyboard, mouse, etc.) to a
laptop with a single connection, reducing cable clutter and improving convenience.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Laptop hardware and connections:
“A docking station enables the use of multiple external devices with a laptop using only one or two
connections, making it ideal for office environments.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Laptop Hardware
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1
============
Question: 162
A user keeps getting an error message when trying to print a letter. The printer is normally used to
print cards and invitations. The user tries printing from a different computer, but the issue persists.
Which of the following should the user do to resolve the issue?
- Print fewer pages.
Questions and Answers PDF 123/419
- Print on card stock
- Replace the rollers.
- Change the paper tray setting.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If a printer is set to use a special tray (for cards/invitations) but a different type of print job is
attempted (like a letter), a paper tray setting mismatch can cause errors. Changing the tray setting to
match the print media resolves the issue.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshooting printers:
“If print jobs fail when media type changes, verify and adjust the paper tray settings to match the
required output.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3
============
Question: 163
Which of the following should a company use to implement automatic time synchronization?
- DHCP
- UTM
- NTP
- AAA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Questions and Answers PDF 124/419
NTP (Network Time Protocol) is specifically designed to synchronize the clocks of networked
computers and devices automatically.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.6 – Network services and protocols:
“NTP is used to automatically synchronize system clocks on network devices, ensuring all systems
have accurate time.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Protocols
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.6
============
Question: 164
An end user reports that their laptop has a blank screen. A technician observes the keyboard lights
are on, and the fan is running. Which of the following should the technician do next?
- Check the display ribbon cable.
- Contact vendor support
- Replace the inverter
- Connect to an external monitor
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a laptop powers on but the screen is blank, the quickest way to isolate the problem is to
connect to an external monitor. This helps determine if the issue is with the laptop display or with
the graphics subsystem.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware
problems:
“A blank screen on a laptop with power indicators lit should be tested with an external display first to
rule out a faulty screen or ribbon cable.”
Verified Source:
Questions and Answers PDF 125/419
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Laptop Display Troubleshooting
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
============
Question: 165
Which of the following minimizes the time it takes to connect a display, keyboard, mouse, and
network cable to a laptop?
- Lightning interface
- Port replicator
- USB hub
- Bluetooth
Answer: B
Explanation:
A port replicator is designed to allow a user to quickly connect a laptop to multiple peripherals
(display, keyboard, mouse, network, etc.) using a single interface, reducing setup time.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Laptop hardware and connections:
“Port replicators offer quick connections for multiple peripherals, streamlining the process of docking
and undocking a laptop.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Laptop Hardware
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1
Question: 166
A multifunction printer in a small office recently had issues with scan-to-email functionality. The
manufacturer has an update ready to fix the printer issues. Which of the following would a
technician most likely deploy to remediate the issue?
- Firmware
Questions and Answers PDF 126/419
- Driver
- OS update
- HSM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Firmware is the embedded software on a device such as a printer. Manufacturers often release
firmware updates to resolve hardware-specific functionality issues, such as scan-to-email or security
vulnerabilities.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – Printer installation and
maintenance:
“Firmware updates provide bug fixes and add new features for multifunction printers. Apply
firmware updates to resolve device-specific issues.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Printer Maintenance
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4
============
Question: 167
A technician is setting up a new SOHO wireless router. According to security best practices, which of
the following should the technician do first?
- Enable encryption.
- Assign a static IP.
- Change the default password.
- Reset the router.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Questions and Answers PDF 127/419
The first security step after deploying a new router is to change the default administrative password.
Default credentials are well known and pose a security risk if left unchanged.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.3 – Secure a wireless network:
“Always change default administrative credentials before further configuration to prevent
unauthorized access.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Security
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.3
============
Question: 168
Which of the following can carry data and electricity to network devices? (Select two).
- Router
- Injector
- Cable modem
- Access point
- PoE
- Unmanaged switch
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
PoE (Power over Ethernet) allows both data and electrical power to be delivered over the same
Ethernet cable. A PoE injector adds power to Ethernet cables for devices that need it.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Networking hardware:
“Power over Ethernet (PoE) technology and PoE injectors enable both power and data transmission
to compatible network devices like access points and IP cameras.”
Questions and Answers PDF 128/419
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Hardware
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2
============
Question: 169
A company deploys its infrastructure in self-operated data centers. The company recently migrated
some of its applications to a public cloud. Which of the following most accurately describes the cloud
model the company is following?
- Public
- Hybrid
- Community
- Private
Answer: B
Explanation:
A hybrid cloud combines private infrastructure (on-premises, self-operated data centers) with public
cloud services, providing flexibility and scalability.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud concepts:
“A hybrid cloud model integrates private and public cloud infrastructure to allow applications and
data to be shared between them.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Computing
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
============
Question: 170
Questions and Answers PDF 129/419
A technician is setting up a new multifunction device to be used over a shared network connection.
Copier functions need to be restricted to only office employees. Which of the following should the
technician perform after configuring the device to use a print server that exists on the domain?
- SMTP implementation
- Firmware update
- User authentication
- SMB configuration
Answer: C
Explanation:
User authentication allows access to device functions (like printing and copying) to be restricted to
authorized personnel. This is typically implemented on networked multifunction devices for security
and auditing.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – Printer and device security:
“Enable user authentication on shared multifunction devices to restrict access to specific features for
authorized users only.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Printer Security
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4
Question: 171
A technician observes slow startup times on a laptop. Which of the following is most likely causing
the issue?
- HDD
- RAM
- NIC
- BIOS
Questions and Answers PDF 130/419
Answer: A
Explanation:
A hard disk drive (HDD), especially if it’s older or nearly full, is the most common cause of slow
startup times in laptops. HDDs are much slower than SSDs and can significantly bottleneck the boot
process.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware
problems:
“A slow startup or sluggish system performance is commonly due to a failing or fragmented hard disk
drive (HDD). Replacing with an SSD can greatly improve boot times and overall system
responsiveness.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting PC Hardware
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
============
Question: 172
Which of the following display technologies typically provides the highest contrast?
- IPS
- OLED
- TN
- VA
Answer: B
Explanation:
OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode) technology can turn off individual pixels completely, producing
“true black” and resulting in the highest contrast ratios compared to other display types.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Display types and features:
Questions and Answers PDF 131/419
“OLED displays provide superior contrast by emitting light per pixel, allowing perfect black and
extremely high contrast ratios.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Display Technologies
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1
============
Question: 173
Which of the following types of RAM would most likely be used in a server?
- SODIMM
- ECC
- Unbuffered
- DDR3
Answer: B
Explanation:
ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers because it can detect and correct
memory errors, providing greater stability and reliability for mission-critical environments.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Types of RAM:
“Servers often require ECC memory, which can detect and correct single-bit errors, preventing data
corruption and increasing system reliability.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Technologies
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
============
Question: 174
Questions and Answers PDF 132/419
A company migrates a local application to an internal cloud platform. Which of the following best
describes this cloud platform?
- Private
- Public
- Community
- Hybrid
Answer: A
Explanation:
An internal cloud platform operated exclusively for a single organization is a private cloud, providing
dedicated resources and enhanced control.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud models:
“A private cloud is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization, typically managed internally
or by a third party, and may be hosted on-premises.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Concepts
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
============
Question: 175
A technician sets up secure print and configures an NFC device that will authenticate users for access.
Which of the following will the NFC device most likely use to authenticate?
- Badging
- Password
- Passcode
- Biometrics
Questions and Answers PDF 133/419
Answer: A
Explanation:
Badging refers to the use of NFC-enabled ID badges or cards that authenticate users when tapped
against a reader for secure print or access control.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – Secure printing and authentication:
“NFC authentication is commonly implemented using employee badges, allowing secure and
convenient access to devices and functions.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Secure Print Solutions
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4
============
Question: 176
A customer recently lost data due to several unexpected shutdowns. Data integrity is important to
the customer. Which of the following features should the technician choose to prevent data loss?
- Redundant power supply
- Uninterruptible power supply
- Modular power supply
- High-efficiency power supply
Answer: B
Explanation:
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) protects systems against power outages by providing
temporary backup power, giving users time to save data and safely shut down.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Power protection:
“A UPS supplies backup power to prevent data loss and hardware damage during outages or surges,
ensuring system integrity.”
Questions and Answers PDF 134/419
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Protection
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3
Question: 177
Which of the following allows a physical server to host multiple virtual machines?
- Cross-platform virtualization
- Hypervisor
- Sandbox
- SaaS
Answer: B
Explanation:
A hypervisor is software or firmware that allows multiple operating systems (virtual machines) to run
on a single physical host. It manages the allocation of resources and isolation of each VM.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization concepts:
“A hypervisor is the key component of virtualization, enabling a physical server to host multiple
virtual machines (VMs), each with its own OS and resources.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
============
Question: 178
Which of the following virtualization technologies is best suited for running microservices?
- Containers
- VDI
Questions and Answers PDF 135/419
- Type 2 hypervisors
- Type 1 hypervisors
Answer: A
Explanation:
Containers provide lightweight virtualization, ideal for deploying microservices because they are
isolated, portable, and require fewer resources than traditional VMs.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization and cloud computing:
“Containers package applications and their dependencies, making them ideal for running
microservices efficiently and independently.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud and Virtualization
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
============
Question: 179
An IT specialist sets up a new computer for a user who requires a high-end video card and the fastest
hard drive possible. Which of the following connectors should the specialist verify are available on
the motherboard? (Select two).
- Molex
- NVMe
- SATA
- FireWire
- USB-C
- PCIe
Answer: B,F
Questions and Answers PDF 136/419
Explanation:
PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is required for high-end video cards.
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) utilizes the M.2 or PCIe interface for the fastest SSD
performance.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Motherboard expansion slots and
storage interfaces:
“High-end video cards require a PCIe slot, while NVMe drives use M.2 (PCIe) slots for the highest
data transfer rates.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Motherboard and Storage
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
============
Question: 180
A user’s phone does not respond to touch. A technician inspects the phone but does not see any
evidence of physical damage. The technician restarts the device, which does not fix the issue. Which
of the following components should the technician examine next?
- Battery
- Screen
- Stylus
- Digitizer
Answer: D
Explanation:
The digitizer is the component responsible for detecting touch input on a screen. If touch is not
registering and there’s no physical damage, the digitizer may be faulty.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Mobile device hardware:
Questions and Answers PDF 137/419
“If a touchscreen device does not respond to input and the screen is intact, the digitizer (touch
sensor) may be defective.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Mobile Hardware
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1
============
Question: 181
A user can connect their laptop to the internet in the main office. However, when the user places the
laptop on top of a motor on the factory floor, there is no internet connectivity. Which of the following
is the most likely cause of this issue?
- Jitter
- Insufficient power levels
- External interference
- High latency
Answer: C
Explanation:
Large electrical motors can emit electromagnetic interference (EMI), which can disrupt wireless
signals and prevent connectivity.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.4 – Wireless troubleshooting:
“Sources of external interference such as motors or other electrical equipment can disrupt wireless
network connectivity.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Troubleshooting
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.4
============
Questions and Answers PDF 138/419
Question: 182
Which of the following is a characteristic of an NVMe drive?
- M.2 interface
- 3.5in (8.9cm) external
- 7,200rpm
- Molex connector
Answer: A
Explanation:
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives commonly use the M.2 interface and provide the
highest performance for SSDs.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Storage devices:
“NVMe drives connect via the M.2 slot and provide the fastest data transfer rates available for
storage devices.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Storage Technologies
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2
Question: 183
Which of the following connector types is associated with coaxial terminations serving cable internet
deployments?
- DB9
- ST
- F-type
- RJ45
Questions and Answers PDF 139/419
Answer: C
Explanation:
F-type connectors are commonly used to terminate coaxial cables in cable internet, cable TV, and
satellite connections.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Network cables and connectors:
“F-type connectors are used for coaxial cable terminations in cable modem and TV installations.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Networking Cables and Connectors
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1
============
Question: 184
A technician receives several complaints from the same office about VoIP calls sounding broken up,
being difficult to hear, and having lagging audio. The technician arrives on-site and runs an internet
speed test on several wired and wireless computers. Internet speed seems normal throughout the
office. Which of the following should the technician do to fix the call issues?
- Enable QoS in the router
- Configure PoE on the switch
- Change the encryption from WPA3 to WPA2
- Turn on MAC address filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
Quality of Service (QoS) prioritizes VoIP traffic on the network, reducing jitter, latency, and packet
loss to improve call quality.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.4 – Network troubleshooting:
“Enabling QoS in the router ensures time-sensitive traffic, like VoIP, receives network priority,
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reducing dropped or lagging calls.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Troubleshooting
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.4
============
Question: 185
A technician needs to update a web server’s IPv4 address in a DNS server. Which of the following
records should the technician update?
- AAAA
- MX
- CNAME
- A
Answer: D
Explanation:
An A record maps a domain name to an IPv4 address in a DNS server.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.6 – DNS records:
“A records map hostnames to IPv4 addresses, while AAAA records map to IPv6 addresses.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: DNS Records
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.6
============
Question: 186
A technician needs to prepare a conference room for a meeting. The technician connects the laptop
to the LCD projector and audio system, and then verifies the connectivity of each device. The
Questions and Answers PDF 141/419
meeting begins, but the visual presentation suddenly cuts off 30 minutes later. The audio continues
to play without interruption. The technician brings in a backup laptop and connects it to the
projector. The meeting continues without issue for 15 minutes until the presentation suddenly cuts
off again. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve this issue?
- Check the laptop’s audio output
- Verify the input source
- Examine the display for burn-in
- Inspect the cables for damage
- Clean or replace the filter
Answer: E
Explanation:
Overheating is a common cause of projectors shutting down after extended use. A clogged air filter
can cause overheating, resulting in intermittent shutdowns.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshooting displays:
“If a projector shuts down after running for a period, clean or replace the filter to prevent
overheating and automatic shutdown.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Display Troubleshooting
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
============
Question: 187
A technician installs an upgraded wireless access point. The technician then notices the activity light
comes on briefly and turns off. The access point continues to exhibit this behavior repeatedly and
does not come online. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
- High latency
- Port flapping
Questions and Answers PDF 142/419
- External interference
- Channel conflict
Answer: B
Explanation:
Port flapping refers to a network port continuously going up and down, which can prevent the access
point from fully coming online.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.4 – Wired and wireless
troubleshooting:
“Repeated loss and restoration of network link is called port flapping and may result in network
devices, such as access points, not coming online.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Troubleshooting
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.4
============
Question: 188
A technician is setting up a workstation. Which of the following settings should the technician
configure to ensure that users can connect to the network? (Select three).
- APIPA
- Gateway
- IP address
- Subnet mask
- Static routes
- UPnP settings
- NAT rules
- MAC filters
Questions and Answers PDF 143/419
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
For a device to communicate on a network, it must have a valid IP address, subnet mask, and default
gateway configured.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Network configuration:
“A valid IP address, subnet mask, and gateway are required for network connectivity and
communication outside the local network.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Configuration
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2
============
Question: 189
A major retailer is moving its online shopping website to the cloud and wants to expand its server
resources as needed during busier shopping days. Which of the following should the retailer
consider?
- Location
- Elasticity
- Availability
- Multitenancy
Answer: B
Explanation:
Elasticity in cloud computing refers to the ability to automatically scale resources up or down based
on demand, making it ideal for businesses with fluctuating workloads.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud characteristics:
Questions and Answers PDF 144/419
“Elasticity allows cloud customers to quickly and automatically scale computing resources in
response to changing demand.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Concepts
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
Question: 190
A network printer does not release a user’s final print job from the queue, but the user’s other print
jobs successfully printed a few moments before. Other users can print without issues. Which of the
following should the user check first to solve the issue?
- If the print job is configured to a tray or manual feed
- If the computer and printer are connected to the same network
- If the print queue is full and will not allow additional jobs
- If the printer has stopped due to empty trays
Answer: A
Explanation:
If only one print job fails and others succeed, it is often due to a paper type or tray selection
mismatch for that specific job. If a print job is configured to use a tray that is empty or set to manual
feed, it will not be released until resolved.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Printer troubleshooting:
“If a specific print job stalls while others succeed, check the job settings for specific tray or paper type
configurations that do not match the printer’s current setup.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3
============
Questions and Answers PDF 145/419
Question: 191
A technician is troubleshooting a workstation that repeatedly shuts down within ten minutes of
being turned on. The technician notices a loud clicking sound coming from inside the case. Which of
the following components should the technician check first?
- Exhaust fan
- Capacitors
- CPU fan
- Intake fan
Answer: C
Explanation:
A failing CPU fan may make unusual noises (including clicking) and, if it is not cooling the CPU, the
system will quickly overheat and shut down to prevent damage.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshooting hardware
problems:
“Overheating due to a failed or obstructed CPU fan can cause frequent shutdowns. Loud noises are a
sign the fan should be checked first.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: PC Hardware Troubleshooting
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
============
Question: 192
Which of the following allows for a beam of light to transmit data through a flexible cable?
- Coaxial
- HDMI
- Thunderbolt
- Single-mode fiber
Questions and Answers PDF 146/419
Answer: D
Explanation:
Single-mode fiber (as well as multi-mode fiber) transmits data using beams of light, allowing for
high-speed data transfer over flexible fiber-optic cables.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 – Networking media:
“Fiber optic cables transmit data using light. Single-mode fiber is used for long-distance, high-speed
communication.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Media
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1
============
Question: 193
An IT specialist is setting up a new, custom computer. The specialist wants to minimize the number of
power cables to keep the internal components organized and uncluttered. Which of the following
power supply types should the specialist use?
- Modular
- Redundant
- Linear
- External
Answer: A
Explanation:
A modular power supply allows the user to connect only the cables needed, reducing clutter and
improving organization inside the case.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Power supplies:
Questions and Answers PDF 147/419
“Modular power supplies provide detachable cables, allowing users to use only the required
connections for a neater build.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Supplies
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3
============
Question: 194
A company policy change requires all computers to be encrypted. Which of the following
technologies should a technician configure to meet this new requirement?
- NVMe
- RISC
- ARM
- TPM
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip used to enable encryption technologies such as
BitLocker, providing secure key storage for system-wide encryption.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.5 – Security features:
“A TPM chip is required for system encryption, storing encryption keys securely on the hardware.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Security Hardware
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.5
============
Question: 195
Questions and Answers PDF 148/419
A company wants to use cloud services with the requirement that data will reside on physical
hardware that will not be shared with other companies. Which of the following meets this
requirement?
- Dedicated resources
- Elasticity
- Hybrid cloud
- SaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dedicated resources (sometimes called single-tenant or bare metal) guarantee that physical
hardware is allocated exclusively to one customer and not shared.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud deployment models:
“Dedicated resources ensure data isolation at the hardware level for compliance and security.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Deployment
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
============
Question: 196
A user connects a company-issued laptop to a 4K TV but can only get 1080p resolution on the TV. The
technician confirms that the laptop is capable of producing a 4K output. Which of the following is the
most likely cause of the issue?
- The TV firmware is out of date
- The HDMI cable version is incorrect
- The laptop firmware is not current
- The CPU cannot keep up with the transcoding
Questions and Answers PDF 149/419
Answer: B
Explanation:
An older HDMI cable version may not support 4K resolution. For 4K output, both the device and the
cable must support HDMI 2.0 or higher.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Display troubleshooting:
“Ensure the correct version of HDMI cable is used for high-resolution outputs like 4K. Older cables
may be limited to 1080p.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Display and Video
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1
============
Question: 197
Which of the following is an isolated virtual machine?
- Sandbox
- Hypervisor
- Container
- VDI
Answer: A
Explanation:
A sandbox is an isolated virtual environment, often used for testing code or software safely without
affecting the host system.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization:
“A sandbox provides an isolated environment, often implemented as a virtual machine, to safely test
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applications or code.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7
============
Question: 198
A user cannot see the office multifunction printer in their laptop’s print options. They have printed to
the device in the past successfully. The user’s laptop is connected to the guest wireless network.
Other users on both wireless and wired computers can see and print to the printer. Which of the
following will fix the issue?
- Power cycle the printer to refresh connectivity.
- Reset the closest wireless AP.
- Download the printer driver from the manufacturer’s website.
- Connect the laptop to the corporate Wi-Fi.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If the user is on a guest network and cannot access internal resources like printers, connecting to the
corporate Wi-Fi will place the device on the correct subnet to access the printer.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Network segmentation:
“Guest networks are isolated from internal resources for security. Connect to the main corporate WiFi to access shared devices.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Networking
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2
============
Questions and Answers PDF 151/419
Question: 199
A technician receives a notification after a network outage that indicates the printer is not reachable.
Which of the following printer settings should the technician implement to prevent this issue in the
future?
- Gateway
- Static IP
- APIPA
- DHCP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Assigning a static IP to network printers ensures the printer’s address does not change after outages
or DHCP lease expirations, preventing connectivity issues.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – Printer network configuration:
“Printers should use static IPs to ensure they remain reachable and do not change addresses after
network events.”
Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Printer Networking
CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4
Question: 200
Which of the following cloud models allows customers to connect to company resources from their
laptops with the least amount of infrastructure?
- PaaS
- IaaS
- SaaS
- FaaS
Questions and Answers PDF 152/419
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud model that allows users to access applications over the
Internet without managing the infrastructure or platform. Users can log in via a browser or app on
any device, such as a laptop, with minimal configuration required.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: Virtualization and Cloud
Computing ConceptsSaaS provides “ready-to-use” applications and is ideal for organizations looking
to minimize local infrastructure needs.
Question: 201
Employees are concerned about sensitive data being printed on a shared multifunction printer
located in a high-traffic hallway. Which of the following should a technician do to address this
concern?
- Set up a PIN for user authentication at the printer
- Relocate the printer to an unused office space
- Configure printing of sensitive data through a specific tray
- Schedule print jobs to be released at certain times
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
PIN printing (also known as secure printing) ensures that documents are held in a queue until the
authorized user enters a PIN directly at the printer. This prevents unauthorized viewing of
confidential documents.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: Printer SecuritySecure
printing with PIN authentication ensures only the document owner can release sensitive print jobs.
Questions and Answers PDF 153/419
Question: 202
An office manager wants to block all outbound internet traffic but continue to enable all inbound
traffic. Which of the following should a technician configure to achieve this goal?
- MAC filtering
- Network interface card
- Firewall
- Switch
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A firewall allows for detailed traffic control, including blocking outbound connections while allowing
inbound ones. This is contrary to typical security setups, but it can be configured via advanced
firewall rules.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: Firewall
ConfigurationFirewalls can allow inbound traffic and deny outbound connections based on
configured rules.
Question: 203
A thief stole a company phone and successfully extracted confidential company information from the
device. Which of the following should have been used to prevent the extraction?
- GPS
- EPS
- eSIM
- MDM
Answer: D
Questions and Answers PDF 154/419
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
MDM (Mobile Device Management) enforces security policies, such as encryption, remote wipe, and
access control. It could have remotely wiped the device or locked it down to prevent data theft.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: Mobile Device SecurityMDM
tools provide remote wipe and security policy enforcement, essential for protecting mobile data.
Question: 204
Which of the following RAID configurations can lose two drives without data loss?
- RAID 0
- RAID 1
- RAID 5
- RAID 6
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
RAID 6 uses two parity blocks, allowing it to tolerate the failure of two drives without losing data.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: RAID TypesRAID 6 supports
dual-drive failure tolerance with dual parity, making it more fault-tolerant than RAID 5.
Question: 205
An IT support specialist needs to configure several laptops to access local resources wherever the
employees are while in the office. Which of the following would best meet this requirement?
- Configure cellular location services to facilitate device identification
- Set up a Wi-Fi connection with a common SSID
Questions and Answers PDF 155/419
- Enable Bluetooth connectivity in all laptops
- Create roaming profiles for each laptop
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (From CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Concepts):
A consistent Wi-Fi SSID across all APs allows users to roam throughout the office while maintaining
access to local resources without reconnecting manually.
CompTIA Core 1 Study Guide Concept Reference:
Wireless networking configuration
SSID broadcast and roaming
WLAN infrastructure
The study guide explains that a common SSID enables seamless roaming and uninterrupted access to
network resources.
Question: 206
A technician replaces a laptop’s failed motherboard. During validation testing, the wireless is slow
and shows a weak signal. Which of the following should the technician do first to verify the source of
the issue?
- Contact the manufacturer
- Reseat antenna connections
- Restart the access point
- Install a new wireless adapter
Answer: B
Explanation:
Questions and Answers PDF 156/419
Comprehensive and Detailed
Laptop Wi-Fi antennas run through the display bezel and connect via small coaxial clips. After
motherboard replacement, these are often not fully seated, causing weak or unstable Wi-Fi.
CompTIA Concepts:
Laptop hardware troubleshooting
Antenna connector checks after repair
WLAN performance issues caused by antenna misalignment
Question: 207
Which of the following will a company most likely use to control which websites a user can access?
- Proxy server
- Spam gateway
- DHCP server
- RADIUS server
Answer: A
Explanation:
A proxy server acts as an intermediary between client devices and the internet. One of its primary
functions is URL filtering, web-content restriction, and logging user activity. When a user attempts to
connect to a website, the request first goes to the proxy, where filtering rules determine whether the
site is allowed or blocked. CompTIA A+ 220-1201 emphasizes that proxies help organizations control
outbound traffic, enforce browsing policies, block malicious or inappropriate content, and improve
security through caching.
Spam gateways only filter email, DHCP assigns IP addresses, and RADIUS handles authentication,
none of which enforce website restriction. Therefore, the correct solution for content control is a
proxy server, as stated in the Networking domain of the A+ curriculum.
Question: 208
Which of the following technologies is most used in portable devices?
Questions and Answers PDF 157/419
- ECC
- RAID
- SATA
- SODIMM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Portable devices such as laptops, small-form-factor computers, and mini-PCs use SODIMM (Small
Outline DIMM) memory modules. CompTIA A+ explains that SODIMMs are physically smaller and
consume less power than standard DIMMs, making them ideal for mobile systems where space and
energy efficiency are critical. Unlike ECC memory, which is primarily used in servers, or RAID which is
a storage redundancy methodology rather than a memory type SODIMM is specifically designed for
compact computing devices. SATA is a storage interface, not a memory form factor.
The A+ study guide clearly lists SODIMM as the standard laptop memory type because of its compact
footprint and compatibility with mobile motherboard layouts. This makes SODIMM the most widely
implemented memory technology in portable devices.
Question: 209
Which of the following is commonly affected by high latency?
- Satellite
- Fiber
- Cable
- DSL
Answer: A
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ emphasizes that satellite internet connections inherently suffer from extremely high
latency because the data must travel from the user’s antenna to satellites orbiting tens of thousands
Questions and Answers PDF 158/419
of miles above Earth and back. Although satellite systems offer broad geographic coverage, this long
travel distance introduces noticeable delays often 500ms or more.
Fiber, cable, and DSL operate through terrestrial wiring and have far lower latency due to short signal
paths. Fiber, in particular, is the fastest and lowest-latency connection type.
Satellite delay significantly impacts VoIP calls, video conferencing, online gaming, and real-time
applications. The A+ exam specifically notes latency as a major performance characteristic of satellite
service, distinguishing it from other broadband technologies.
Question: 210
Which of the following connectors supports High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection (HDCP)?
- DVI-A
- F-type
- VGA
- DisplayPort
Answer: D
Explanation:
DisplayPort is a fully digital video interface that supports HDCP (High-bandwidth Digital Content
Protection), a digital rights-management protocol used to protect copyrighted content such as
movies, streaming video, and Blu-ray playback. The CompTIA A+ study guide notes that DisplayPort
and HDMI support HDCP, while analog connections like VGA and DVI-A do not support HDCP because
analog signals cannot enforce digital content protection.
F-type connectors are used for coaxial cabling (cable TV, satellite), not digital video output.
DisplayPort’s support for encrypted high-definition video streams makes it the correct answer and
aligns with CompTIA’s coverage of display connectors and digital content protection technologies.
Question: 211
Which of the following is used to confirm that a physical port is working?
- Network tap
- Crimper
Questions and Answers PDF 159/419
- Patch panel
- Loopback plug
Answer: D
Explanation:
A loopback plug is a diagnostic tool used to test whether a physical port such as an Ethernet NIC port
or serial port is capable of sending and receiving its own signal. When inserted, it “loops” outgoing
signals back into the device, confirming the port’s transmit/receive functionality.
CompTIA A+ emphasizes loopback plugs as essential tools during hardware and network
troubleshooting, especially when isolating physical port or NIC failures.
Network taps passively monitor traffic, crimpers attach RJ45 connectors to cables, and patch panels
organize cabling none of these verify port-level functionality. Therefore, only a loopback plug can
confirm that a port is working correctly by testing signal integrity and hardware responsiveness.
Question: 212
Which of the following allows an organization to provide remote desktop resources without
providing physical workstations to its users?
- RMM
- SaaS
- VDI
- Containers
Answer: C
Explanation:
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) hosts user desktops on centralized servers rather than physical
PCs. Users access a virtual desktop session remotely through thin clients, laptops, or web browsers.
The CompTIA A+ cloud-computing domain explains that VDI improves manageability, security, and
resource efficiency by allowing IT to centralize OS images, apps, and updates.
Questions and Answers PDF 160/419
SaaS provides applications not desktops. RMM is for monitoring and managing devices. Containers
virtualize applications, not full desktops.
VDI enables organizations to avoid purchasing physical desktops while still delivering full computing
environments to users, which aligns with the A+ virtualization objectives and remote-access
concepts.
Question: 213
A student configures a wireless SOHO network to connect four laptops and one multifunction printer.
Which setting ensures the printer is always available?
- Dynamic IPs for laptops, static IP for printer on same subnet
- Manually assign public IPs to laptops and printer
- Use APIPA for laptops and connect printer directly to ISP router
- Use dynamic IP addressing for all devices
Answer: A
Explanation:
Printers in SOHO environments must maintain a consistent IP address so devices can regularly locate
them for scanning and printing tasks. CompTIA A+ emphasizes assigning static IPs to network printers
to prevent address changes that occur with DHCP.
Laptops can remain DHCP clients because their address consistency is less critical. APIPA cannot
communicate across networks and therefore should not be used. Assigning public IPs is incorrect and
unsafe.
By giving the printer a static IP within the same subnet, all laptops can reliably access it, and the
network remains organized and functional exactly as the A+ objectives recommend.
Question: 214
A user on the edge of a building reports slow Wi-Fi and intermittent drops. Which action will solve
the issue?
- Enable the 5GHz band
- Run ipconfig /flushdns
Questions and Answers PDF 161/419
- Upgrade laptop to Wi-Fi 6 NIC
- Install additional wireless APs around the location
Answer: D
Explanation:
Wireless coverage issues at the physical edges of a building are typically caused by weak RF signal
strength. The CompTIA A+ study material says the best solution is to add additional wireless access
points (APs) or implement a mesh system to extend coverage and eliminate dead zones.
Enabling 5GHz often worsens the issue because 5GHz has shorter range. Wi-Fi 6 NIC upgrades
improve performance but do not increase signal reach. Flushing DNS does not affect wireless
coverage.
Installing more APs ensures stronger coverage, better signal-to-noise ratio, and stable connectivity
aligning with CompTIA’s wireless troubleshooting best practices.
Question: 215
A user replaces their PC power supply and connects it to the components, but the PC fails to start.
What is the most likely cause?
- The computer requires additional RAM
- The wattage is insufficient
- The 4-pin CPU power connector is not connected
- The PSU only works in redundant setups
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern motherboards require both the 24-pin ATX connector and a 4-pin or 8-pin CPU power
connector. If the CPU power connector is not attached, the motherboard will receive power but the
system will not boot. CompTIA A+ specifically lists this as a common mistake after replacing a power
supply.
Questions and Answers PDF 162/419
Insufficient wattage may cause instability, but usually the system still attempts to start. RAM does not
prevent power-on if missing; instead, the system produces beep codes. Redundant PSUs are used in
servers, not standard desktops.
Therefore, the missing CPU power connector is the most likely cause, and this scenario reflects
typical troubleshooting steps outlined in A+ hardware diagnostics.
Question: 216
A developer wants to protect critical data from hard drive failure. Their workstation has two hard
drives. Which RAID level should they use?
- RAID 0
- RAID 1
- RAID 5
- RAID 10
Answer: B
Explanation:
RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring, duplicates data identically to two drives, ensuring full
redundancy if one drive fails. Because the workstation only has two drives, RAID 1 is the only RAID
level that provides fault tolerance under this constraint, exactly as described in the CompTIA A+
study guide.
RAID 0 offers no redundancy, RAID 5 requires at least three drives, and RAID 10 requires at least four
drives.
RAID 1 is the recommended configuration for small environments or workstations that rely on data
integrity and quick recovery, matching CompTIA’s guidance for redundancy in systems with limited
drive availability.
Question: 217
A student configures a wireless SOHO network to connect four laptops and one multifunction printer.
All laptops must have internet access and be able to use the printer. Which of the following settings
ensures the printer is always available?
- Configure dynamic IPs for the laptops and a static IP for the printer on the same subnet.
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- Manually assign IP addresses to the laptops and printer based on the public IP from the ISP.
- Use APIPA for laptops and connect the printer to the ISP router.
- Use dynamic IP addresses from the ISP router for all the devices.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (100–150+ Words):
CompTIA A+ stresses that printers must use static IP addresses to remain consistently reachable on a
LAN. When using DHCP, the printer’s IP address may change, causing laptops to lose access. By
assigning a static IP within the same subnet, the printer becomes a stable, discoverable network
resource for all laptops.
Using dynamic IPs for the laptops is perfectly acceptable in SOHO environments, because clients
don’t require permanent IPs. Assigning public IPs (Option B) is incorrect and unsafe. APIPA
(169.254.x.x) does not route and cannot reach the internet or a standard printer. Using dynamic ISPassigned IPs for all devices (Option D) is also incorrect because ISP routers typically give only one
public IP, not multiple internal ones.
Therefore, to ensure the printer is always reachable, the correct configuration is: DHCP for laptops,
static IP for printer a best practice detailed in CompTIA’s networking and SOHO setup guidelines.
Question: 218
A Wi-Fi router is set up in a central room. A user on the outer edge of the building reports slow
connections and intermittent internet drops. Which of the following actions will solve the issue?
- Enabling the 5GHz band
- Running the flushdns command
- Upgrading the laptop to a Wi-Fi 6 NIC
- Installing additional wireless APs around the location
Answer: D
Explanation:
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CompTIA A+ explains that Wi-Fi issues at the edges of a building are typically caused by weak signal
coverage, not client configuration. The recommended solution is to add additional wireless access
points (APs) or mesh extenders to expand coverage and eliminate dead zones.
Enabling 5GHz would worsen the problem because 5GHz has shorter range and penetrates walls less
effectively than 2.4GHz. Flushing DNS affects name resolution, not wireless signal strength.
Upgrading the NIC to Wi-Fi 6 improves maximum throughput but still depends on sufficient signal,
which the user does not have.
Additional APs ensure strong signal-to-noise ratio, consistent throughput, and stable roaming all
solutions emphasized in the A+ wireless troubleshooting section. Therefore, option D is the correct
and CompTIA-aligned fix.
Question: 219
The power supply for a user’s gaming PC fails. The user installs a new power supply and connects it
to the motherboard, GPU, and SSDs, but the computer will not start. What is the most likely cause?
- The computer requires more RAM
- The wattage is insufficient
- The user did not connect the 4-pin CPU connector
- The power supply only works in redundant configurations
Answer: C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ repeatedly highlights that modern motherboards require two power connectors:
The 24-pin ATX main power connector
The 4-pin or 8-pin CPU power connector (EPS connector)
If the CPU power connector is missing, the system will not POST, even though other components
appear to have power. This is a very common mistake after replacing PSUs and is specifically noted in
CompTIA materials as a frequent cause of “no boot” scenarios.
Insufficient wattage usually causes instability, not a total failure to start. RAM is unrelated to
powering on. Redundant PSUs are used in servers, not gaming PCs.
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Thus, the missing CPU power connector is the correct diagnosis and matches A+ hardware
troubleshooting guidelines.
Question: 220
A developer wants to ensure their critical data is protected from hard drive failure. Their workstation
has two hard drives. Which RAID level should they use?
- RAID 0
- RAID 1
- RAID 5
- RAID 10
Answer: B
Explanation:
RAID 1 is known as mirroring. It duplicates all data to both drives simultaneously, providing
redundancy in the event of a single drive failure. CompTIA A+ teaches that RAID 1 is ideal when
reliability is the priority and only two drives are available exactly matching this scenario.
RAID 0 offers no redundancy. RAID 5 requires three or more drives. RAID 10 requires four or more
drives.
Since the workstation has only two drives, RAID 1 is the only RAID configuration providing data
protection and is heavily featured in CompTIA’s coverage of RAID technologies, their requirements,
and their purposes in fault tolerance.
Question: 221
A user’s laptop keyboard is distorted and no longer flat. Which laptop component most likely failed?
- Battery
- RAM
- Keyboard
- HDD
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Answer: A
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ highlights that swollen or expanding batteries especially lithium-ion batteries can
physically warp the laptop chassis, keyboard, or trackpad. This happens when internal chemical
reactions cause the battery to swell. Distorted keyboards, bulging trackpads, and lifted chassis panels
are classic symptoms of battery failure.
RAM and HDD issues do not cause physical deformation. A broken keyboard may malfunction
electronically, but it will not bulge upward unless forced by something underneath typically an
expanding battery.
The A+ safety domain also warns technicians not to puncture swollen batteries and to replace them
immediately due to fire hazards.
Therefore, a failing (swollen) laptop battery is the most likely cause.
Question: 222
Which storage device is best suited for a high-performance gaming laptop requiring fast data access?
- 1TB SATA 2.5″ HDD
- 512GB NVMe M.2 SSD
- 750GB SATA III HDD
- 1TB SAS SSD
Answer: B
Explanation:
Gaming laptops prioritize speed, low latency, fast read/write times, and quick loading. CompTIA A+
explains that NVMe M.2 SSDs provide the fastest consumer storage available due to their use of the
PCIe bus, which delivers significantly higher performance compared to SATA-based drives.
HDDs (Options A and C) are mechanical and have slow seek times, making them unsuitable for highperformance gaming. SAS SSDs (Option D) are enterprise-grade, rarely used in laptops, and require
SAS controllers not found in consumer systems.
Thus, a 512GB NVMe M.2 SSD offers the best performance, fastest boot times, rapid texture loading,
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and optimal gaming responsiveness fully aligning with A+ hardware performance recommendations.
Question: 223
A desktop can connect to a file server but cannot access the internet. The ipconfig /all output shows
a correct IP and DNS but no default gateway. What will most likely restore internet access?
- Flushing the DNS cache
- Choosing a different IPv6 address
- Setting the default gateway
- Disabling NetBIOS
Answer: C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ teaches that the default gateway is required for any device to communicate with
external networks such as the internet. Without a configured default gateway, the computer can
communicate only with devices on the same local subnet explaining why the file server is reachable.
DNS and IPv6 settings are not the issue; without a gateway, external routing cannot occur. Flushing
DNS affects hostname resolution, not routing. NetBIOS settings have no effect on internet
connectivity.
Adding or correcting the default gateway (usually the router’s LAN IP, such as 192.168.1.1) will allow
the PC to route traffic beyond its local network.
This aligns precisely with CompTIA’s troubleshooting steps for missing or incorrect gateway
configuration.
Question: 224
A SOHO user cannot connect to the internet. Their configuration shows:
IP: 192.168.223.15
Mask: 255.255.255.0
Gateway: 192.168.233.1
DNS: 8.8.8.8, 4.2.2.1, 4.2.2.2
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Baseline documentation shows valid subnet range: 192.168.200.0–192.168.232.255.
Which setting must be changed?
- Tertiary DNS
- Secondary DNS
- Primary DNS
- IP Address
- Gateway
- Subnet mask
Answer: E
Explanation:
The baseline documentation says the valid network range ends at 192.168.232.255, but the user’s
gateway is 192.168.233.1, which is outside the permitted network range. CompTIA A+ emphasizes
that devices must have a gateway inside their own subnet.
Given a mask of 255.255.255.0, the user’s subnet is 192.168.223.x, so the gateway must be in
192.168.223.x, not 192.168.233.x.
DNS settings are public and acceptable. The IP address and subnet mask are valid within the
documented address space.
Therefore, the incorrect setting is the gateway, which prevents external routing. Correcting it resolves
the connection issue, matching CompTIA’s routing and TCP/IP troubleshooting procedures.
Question: 225
A technician checks a RAID 5 array and sees a S.M.A.R.T. alert on one disk, but the array still shows
healthy. What should the technician do next?
- Run chkdsk /f
- Disable write caching
- Rebuild the RAID array
- Replace the failing drive
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Answer: D
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ teaches that S.M.A.R.T. warnings indicate imminent drive failure. Even if the RAID
controller reports the array as “healthy,” a S.M.A.R.T. alert means the drive should be replaced
immediately.
RAID 5 provides redundancy for one drive failure, but technicians should replace the degrading drive
before it fails fully, ensuring the rebuild happens proactively.
Running chkdsk affects file systems, not drive health. Disabling write caching is unrelated. Rebuilding
the array should only occur after replacing the faulty drive.
Replacing the drive prevents a catastrophic dual-drive failure scenario, which RAID 5 cannot survive.
This approach aligns with CompTIA troubleshooting guidelines for RAID maintenance and S.M.A.R.T.
diagnostics.
Question: 226
A technician receives complaints that a network fileshare is slow and now unavailable. The server is
powered on and accessible via RDP. What should the technician check next?
- RAID array status
- Data backup integrity
- Network connectivity
- Available memory
Answer: A
Explanation:
A fileshare becoming slow over time and then failing completely strongly suggests storage subsystem
degradation, often due to a failing RAID array. CompTIA A+ explains that slow file access is an early
sign of a degraded array, and eventual unavailability indicates the array may have failed or entered a
critical state.
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Since the technician can still RDP into the server, the OS is functioning, meaning memory is likely not
the issue. Network connectivity is sufficient for remote login. Backup integrity does not affect realtime file availability.
Thus, the next step is to check the RAID array status, which directly controls the server’s storage
performance and availability precisely what CompTIA identifies as the primary point of failure in such
scenarios.
Question: 227
A company is installing a new shared printer for all employees. Some managers need to print
sensitive HR material, and the company does not want to purchase separate printers. Which of the
following should the company implement?
- Audit logging
- Secure printing
- Wired connectivity
- Duplex settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (100–150+ words):
Secure printing ensures that print jobs are not immediately output to the tray but instead held in a
secure queue. The user must enter a PIN, password, or badge authentication directly at the printer to
release the job. CompTIA A+ emphasizes secure printing as the correct method for environments
where sensitive information such as HR files, performance reviews, or confidential reports must not
be viewed by unauthorized individuals.
Audit logging tracks usage but does not protect documents from being seen on the printer tray.
Wired connectivity has no relation to security or confidentiality. Duplex is simply a printing mode.
Secure printing is widely used in corporate environments so shared devices can remain shared
without compromising sensitive data. The A+ curriculum describes this as a security control that
ensures confidentiality in shared-print environments, making Secure Printing the proper solution.
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Question: 228
A user’s laptop is projecting an image upside down when connected to a ceiling-mounted projector.
Which of the following should the technician do to best resolve the issue?
- Change the input source
- Rotate the image from the laptop
- Adjust the display frequency
- Flip the image vertically from the projector
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ceiling-mounted projectors are typically installed upside down, and therefore include a built-in
“Ceiling Mount” or “Vertical Flip” setting within their display menu. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that
projectors provide their own orientation controls intended specifically for this installation scenario.
Adjusting orientation from the laptop rotates the desktop, not the projected output configuration.
Changing input sources does not affect image orientation. Display frequency affects refresh rate and
flickering, not physical image rotation.
Flipping the image directly from the projector ensures the display is oriented correctly regardless of
the device connected. This is the method recommended in A+ material under display configuration
and projector troubleshooting, which covers keystone correction, rotation, and mounting modes.
Thus, the correct solution is to flip the image vertically using the projector’s built-in settings.
Question: 229
Which of the following will most likely be used in a testing environment to execute unauthorized or
experimental code without affecting production systems?
- Virtual machines
- Hybrid cloud
- Load balancers
- Application gateways
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Answer: A
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ strongly emphasizes that virtual machines (VMs) are ideal for testing potentially unsafe
software, malware samples, or experimental code because they isolate the environment from the
host system. VMs allow snapshots, cloning, and rollback functionality, which makes them essential in
development, QA, and cybersecurity environments where code might be unstable or harmful.
Hybrid cloud refers to infrastructure strategy, not code execution isolation. Load balancers distribute
production traffic but have no testing or sandboxing purpose. Application gateways filter traffic but
do not provide execution environments.
Virtual machines create a safe sandbox where failure, infection, or corruption is contained. This is
covered in the Virtualization and Cloud Computing domain of the CompTIA A+ exam, making VMs
the correct tool for executing unauthorized code safely.
Question: 230
A user experiences intermittent Wi-Fi performance issues only in their office. Nearby RJ45 ports do
not provide connectivity, but the user connects fine in other campus areas. AP coverage is weak in
the user’s office. What is the most likely cause?
- APs are installed too far from the user’s office
- Brute-force attempts are causing drops
- Ports near the office are disabled
- The laptop has malware contacting unauthorized sites
Answer: A
Explanation:
The scenario states that the Wi-Fi signal is weak in the user’s office, but the laptop works perfectly in
other locations. CompTIA A+ stresses that weak signal strength is caused by distance from the access
point, physical obstructions, or poor AP placement. Since other users are not affected and the laptop
works elsewhere, the issue is localized signal weakness.
Disabled RJ45 ports (Option C) matter only for wired connections, and the user relies on Wi-Fi.
Malware (Option D) would affect performance everywhere, not just in one office. Brute-force attacks
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(Option B) would trigger security logs and affect multiple users.
Weak signal caused by AP distance or line-of-sight issues is the cause, as detailed in A+ wireless
troubleshooting procedures related to low RSSI, interference, and AP placement.
Question: 231
An administrator is helping a new employee configure email on a smartphone. The employee also
needs access to a shared mailbox. Which is the best email client for this situation?
- Open-source
- Built-in
- Corporate
- Employee preferred
Answer: C
Explanation:
A corporate-provided email client is designed to integrate with enterprise services such as shared
mailboxes, MDM policies, and enterprise authentication. CompTIA A+ states that corporate clients
support additional management features, secure authentication protocols (such as OAuth or
Kerberos), and policy-enforced access control essential for accessing shared or departmental
mailboxes.
Open-source clients (Option A) may lack compatibility with enterprise environments. Built-in
smartphone clients (Option B) often don’t support complex mailbox structures such as shared
mailboxes. Employee-preferred apps (Option D) are discouraged because they may not meet security
requirements.
Corporate clients ensure full compatibility with organizational mail servers, shared folders, calendars,
and enterprise security features, making corporate email clients the correct choice according to
CompTIA’s mobile device email configuration standards.
Question: 232
An office manager must scan a 300-page contract quickly. They are worried about scanning each
page one at a time. Which feature will speed up the process?
- Flatbed scanner
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- Duplexing
- Automatic document feeder
- Orientation configuration
Answer: C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ details that an Automatic Document Feeder (ADF) allows multi-page documents to be
scanned automatically without manually placing each sheet on the flatbed. This drastically increases
scanning efficiency for large documents.
Flatbed scanners require manual placement for every page. Duplexing scans both sides of a page but
does not feed multiple sheets by itself. Orientation configuration only affects image alignment.
The ADF is explicitly highlighted in the A+ study guide as the primary feature used in business
environments when scanning high-volume documents efficiently.
Thus, the ADF is the correct solution because it automates page feeding and dramatically reduces
scanning time, especially for hundreds of pages.
Question: 233
Which DNS record is used by DMARC to verify the authenticity of email servers?
- MX
- CNAME
- TXT
- A
Answer: C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ explains that DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and
Conformance) relies on TXT DNS records to define its policies. TXT records allow administrators to
publish arbitrary text-based configuration data, including DKIM and SPF policies, which DMARC
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references.
MX records identify mail servers, A records map IP addresses, and CNAME records create aliases
none are used to store DMARC policy rules.
DMARC improves email authenticity by requiring SPF and DKIM alignment and specifying how
receiving servers should handle failed validations. The A+ exam explicitly mentions TXT records as
the method used for SPF, DKIM, and DMARC storage.
Therefore, the correct answer is the TXT record, which stores the policy used by DMARC to
authenticate senders and prevent spoofing.
Question: 234
A user reports intermittent Wi-Fi issues in an open office. Other users are not affected. What is the
most likely cause?
- Interference from other Wi-Fi signals
- All users are on the same frequency
- The laptop’s wireless card is malfunctioning
- The antenna is near a device creating electromagnetic interference
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since only one user experiences the issue in a shared environment where everyone else has stable
connectivity, CompTIA A+ suggests that the problem is most likely with the client device, not the
network. The wireless card may be failing, overheating, or experiencing intermittent hardware faults.
If other Wi-Fi signals or EMI (electromagnetic interference) were the cause, multiple users would be
affected. Frequency congestion (Option B) also impacts groups, not a single device.
CompTIA stresses that isolating whether the issue affects one user or many helps determine whether
the fault lies with the network or device. Because the problem is isolated, the most probable cause is
a malfunctioning wireless NIC in the user’s laptop.
Question: 235
A user reports that scanned or copied pages from an MFP show vertical lines down the page. The
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printer processes print jobs correctly. What should the technician do?
- Replace the transfer roller
- Remove the pickup rollers
- Clean the glass bed
- Apply a maintenance kit
Answer: C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ teaches that vertical lines on scanned or copied documents but not printed documents
indicate a dirty or smudged scanner glass or ADF glass strip. Dust, ink smears, or debris create a line
because the scanning sensor repeatedly passes over the same contaminated area.
If printing works normally, internal printer components such as the transfer roller or pickup rollers
are not at fault. Maintenance kits apply to internal wear components like rollers, belts, or fusers not
scanning artifacts.
Cleaning the scanner glass or ADF strip directly addresses this common problem. The A+ exam
frequently includes troubleshooting questions about print vs. scan artifacts, and this scenario is a
classic example.
Therefore, the correct solution is to clean the glass bed (or ADF strip).
Question: 236
Which of the following are radio frequency connections? (Select two.)
- Cable
- Satellite
- DSL
- Cellular
- Ethernet
- Fiber
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Answer: B,D
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ explains that radio frequency (RF) connections use electromagnetic waves instead of
copper or optical cabling. Satellite uses RF signals transmitted to and from orbiting satellites, while
cellular networks (3G/4G/5G) use RF communications via cell towers.
Cable uses coaxial wired infrastructure, DSL uses telephone lines, Ethernet is twisted-pair copper,
and fiber uses light instead of RF.
Satellite and cellular are the only technologies in the list that rely on wireless radio frequency
transmission as their medium. The A+ networking domain emphasizes understanding the physical
media of WAN technologies and distinguishing wired vs. wireless connectivity, making B and D the
correct answers.
Question: 237
A company will retire a legacy application in one year but wants to decommission the physical
environment now. Which migration method is best?
- Relocating the server to a colocated data center
- Performing a physical-to-virtual conversion and hosting on IaaS
- Deploying all components using PaaS
- Taking a backup and shutting down the server
Answer: B
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ emphasizes virtualization as an ideal solution during system phase-out or transition
periods. The correct approach here is a P2V (physical-to-virtual) conversion and hosting the server in
an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment. This removes the need for physical hardware while
still keeping the application operational for its final year. IaaS provides full control over OS and
applications, making it suitable for legacy systems that cannot be rewritten.
Colocation (Option A) still requires physical hardware. PaaS (Option C) is inappropriate because PaaS
requires rewriting or replatforming the application. Shutting down the server after a backup (Option
- D) makes the application immediately unusable.
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Thus, the best method is to convert to a virtual machine and host it on IaaS.
Question: 238
An organization upgrades all desktops to Windows 11 and must ensure protection from malicious
software at startup. Which option should be enabled?
- Trusted Platform Module
- Hardware security module
- Secure Boot
- BIOS password
Answer: C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ explains that Secure Boot is a UEFI security feature that prevents unauthorized or
malicious bootloaders, rootkits, and unsigned OS loaders from starting during the boot process.
Secure Boot verifies digital signatures on the OS and critical boot files before allowing startup,
ensuring the system has not been tampered with.
TPM (Option A) provides encryption key storage and is used for BitLocker, but alone does not block
malicious bootloaders. HSMs (Option B) are enterprise cryptographic devices, not PC boot protection
features. BIOS passwords (Option D) restrict access to configuration but do not protect against
malicious boot-level malware.
Windows 11 specifically requires Secure Boot, making it the correct protection mechanism for
preventing startup-level malware.
Thus, Secure Boot is the proper choice.
Question: 239
A company implements a new policy that prohibits users from installing unapproved applications on
corporate tablets. Which of the following should the technician use to enforce this policy?
- MDM
- ACL
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- DRM
- PAM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201
Official Study Guide)
Mobile Device Management (MDM) is the technology used by organizations to centrally configure,
secure, and control mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets.
The CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives specify that MDM solutions allow administrators to
implement and enforce security and usage policies, including:
Application control (whitelisting and blacklisting)
Restricting installation of unapproved applications
Enforcing corporate compliance requirements
Remotely managing mobile device configurations
This directly applies to the scenario: the company wants to prevent users from installing unapproved
apps on corporate tablets.
MDM enforces this through:
App whitelisting → only approved apps can be installed
App blacklisting → specific apps are blocked
Locked-down app stores → only corporate-approved app stores or catalogs
This is exactly the function MDM is designed for in enterprise mobile security and management.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
B . ACL (Access Control List)
ACLs control network or file-system access, such as allowing or denying IP addresses, ports, or file
permissions.
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They cannot control app installation behavior on mobile devices.
C . DRM (Digital Rights Management)
DRM protects digital content from unauthorized copying or distribution.
It does not restrict which applications can be installed on a mobile device.
D . PAM (Privileged Access Management)
PAM controls administrative or privileged accounts in enterprise environments.
It is unrelated to app-installation restrictions on tablets.
Question: 240
After a user builds their first PC, the user needs to install the operating system from a USB drive.
Which of the following should the user configure next?
- BIOS password
- PXE boot
- Secure Boot
- Boot order
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201
Study Guide)
When installing an operating system from external media (USB flash drive), the motherboard
firmware must be instructed to check that device before checking the internal storage.
The CompTIA A+ official objectives describe that technicians must know how to access UEFI/BIOS
settings and configure boot priority. Installing an OS from USB requires:
Entering UEFI/BIOS setup
Navigating to the Boot or Startup menu
Setting the USB drive as the first boot device
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Saving and exiting to allow the computer to boot from the USB installer
This process is specifically referenced in CompTIA A+ material under “BIOS/UEFI settings,” where
boot sequence / boot order is a fundamental configuration needed for OS installation.
Thus, the next step after assembling the PC is to modify the boot order to allow the system to boot
from the USB installation media.
Why the other options are incorrect
A . BIOS password
Used for system access security; has no relevance to installing an OS from USB.
B . PXE boot
Used for network-based installations, not USB installations.
C . Secure Boot
Controls OS signature validation; not required to be changed for USB installation and is not the next
required step.
Final Answe r: D
Question: 241
An administrator is configuring a SOHO network. The network scope requires static IP addresses for
printers. Which of the following must the administrator set manually? (Select two.)
- DHCP
- Subnet mask
- Default gateway
- DNS
- Reservations
- Exclusions
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Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201
Study Guide)
When assigning a static IP address to a network device such as a printer, the administrator must
manually enter all information that a DHCP server would normally provide automatically.
CompTIA A+ networking fundamentals explain that a statically assigned host requires:
IP address (set manually)
Subnet mask (must be manually configured to define the network boundary)
Default gateway (must be manually assigned so the device can communicate outside its subnet)
DNS (also typically required, but in SOHO printer configs, it is not always mandatory unless name
resolution is needed)
The question asks specifically: Which must be set manually?
The two required components for every static IP assignment in a CompTIA-compliant small office
network are:
✔ B. Subnet mask
Defines the network and host portions of the IP address. Must be manually entered for static IPs.
✔ C. Default gateway
Allows communication outside the local network. Must also be manually set for static IP devices.
Why the other options are incorrect
A . DHCP
Not used in static addressing. DHCP is automatic; static addressing bypasses it.
D . DNS
Not always required for printers unless hostname resolution is needed. The question asks for what
must be set manually.
E . Reservations
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DHCP reservations create “static-like” addresses via DHCP, not manual configuration.
F . Exclusions
Used to prevent DHCP from assigning certain IPs; not part of configuring a static IP on a device.
Question: 242
Which of the following characteristics differentiates DDR4 RAM from DDR3 RAM?
- Lower operating voltage
- Higher latency
- Increased DIMM width
- Single-sided modules
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201
Study Guide)
CompTIA A+ Core 1 memory standards describe the differences between DDR generations. One of
the key improvements in DDR4 over DDR3 is reduced operating voltage, which allows lower power
consumption and increased efficiency.
DDR3 operates at 1.5V (some variants 1.35V)
DDR4 operates at 1.2V (some variants 1.05V LPDDR4)
This lower voltage is a recognized defining characteristic separating DDR4 from DDR3.
Other differences such as increased speed and internal bank structure exist, but the question
specifically asks for the characteristic that differentiates DDR4 from DDR3 — and voltage is the
correct, primary distinction used in CompTIA A+ materials.
Why the other options are incorrect
B . Higher latency
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DDR4 generally has slightly higher CAS latency numbers, but due to increased speed, real latency is
similar. This is not the standard differentiator referenced by CompTIA.
C . Increased DIMM width
DDR3 and DDR4 standard DIMMs both have a 64-bit data width.
D . Single-sided modules
Both DDR3 and DDR4 can be single- or double-sided; not a differentiating factor.
Final Answe r: A
Question: 243
A company is separating its accounting department’s network from its customer service
department’s network. Which of the following will accomplish this task?
- VPN
- DNS
- VLAN
- DHCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201
Study Guide)
CompTIA networking fundamentals describe VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) as a method to
segment network traffic logically, even while using the same physical switch hardware.
A VLAN allows a company to:
Separate traffic by department
Improve security
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Reduce broadcast domains
Control inter-department access
To separate accounting and customer service networks, VLANs are the industry-standard and the
CompTIA-approved method.
Why the other options are incorrect
A . VPN – Used for secure remote connections, not internal LAN segmentation.
B . DNS – Resolves hostnames to IPs, not used for network separation.
D . DHCP – Assigns IP addresses; does not isolate network groups.
Final Answe r: C
Question: 244
The Chief Information Security Officer asks a technician to inventory desktop PCs to determine which
ones meet the requirements for Secure Boot. The technician must also configure the PCs for nonuser-controllable keys. Which of the following are necessary to meet the enhanced security
requirements? (Select two).
- VDI
- BIOS password
- TPM
- UEFI
- Disabled boot drive
- USB permissions
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201
Study Guide)
To run Secure Boot, the system must have:
✔ UEFI firmware (not legacy BIOS)
Secure Boot is a UEFI feature that validates bootloaders using digitally signed keys stored in secure
firmware.
✔ TPM (Trusted Platform Module)
The TPM stores cryptographic keys in tamper-resistant hardware, enabling secure key management
that cannot be altered by normal users.
CompTIA materials describe TPM as essential for enhanced platform security and for storing
validated boot keys when Secure Boot is enabled.
Together, UEFI + TPM provide:
Verified boot loader
Hardware-level key protection
Prevention of unauthorized OS tampering
Non-user-controllable secure key storage
Why the other options are incorrect
A . VDI – Virtual desktops; unrelated to Secure Boot hardware requirements.
B . BIOS password – Helps protect firmware settings but is not required for Secure Boot.
E . Disabled boot drive – Irrelevant to Secure Boot.
F . USB permissions – Not part of Secure Boot requirements.
Final Answe r: C, D
Question: 245
Which of the following is an advantage of using the 2.4 GHz wireless frequency?
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- Communication between devices without external power
- Security for connections in close proximity
- Minimized structural interference
- Increased channel options
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201
Study Guide)
The CompTIA A+ wireless networking section describes key differences between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz
Wi-Fi frequencies.
2.4 GHz provides:
Better range
Better wall penetration
Better performance through structures and obstacles
This means less interference from physical structures, which is the primary advantage of 2.4 GHz
over 5 GHz.
This maps directly to:
✔ C. Minimized structural interference
Why the other options are incorrect
A . Communication without external power
Not related to Wi-Fi frequencies.
B . Security for close-proximity connections
No Wi-Fi frequency provides inherent security advantages.
D . Increased channel options
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5 GHz has more channels, not 2.4 GHz.
Question: 246
Which of the following services are typically provided by a networked host to facilitate file sharing
across different OSs? (Select two).
- NTP
- SMB
- IMAP
- FTP
- ROP
- LDAP
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation
To enable file sharing across different operating systems, CompTIA A+ emphasizes the use of:
✔ SMB (Server Message Block)
The primary file-sharing protocol used by Windows.
Also supported on macOS and Linux (via Samba).
Allows shared folders, printers, and network browsing.
✔ FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
A cross-platform file transfer service supported by all major OSs.
Commonly used to upload/download files between systems of different types.
These two protocols are explicitly listed in CompTIA objectives under network protocols and file
services.
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Why the other options are incorrect
A . NTP – Time synchronization, not file sharing.
C . IMAP – Email protocol, not related to file sharing.
E . ROP – Not a file-sharing protocol (Return-Oriented Programming = security exploit).
F . LDAP – Directory service for authentication, not file sharing.
Final Answe r: B, D
Explanation:
Question: 247
A user reports that they cannot get their laptop to work with a video projector connected with an
HDMI cable. The projector is turned on. The HDMI cable is securely connected on both ends, and the
laptop displays properly on its own screen. The display mode is set to “Duplicate” on the laptop.
Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
- The projector does not support HDMI connections.
- The laptop display mode should be set to “Extend”.
- An HDMI port on the projector failed.
- The input source is incorrect on the projector.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation
CompTIA troubleshooting procedures emphasize confirming input source settings on the external
display device.
Even if the HDMI cable is connected properly:
The projector must be set to the correct input source (HDMI 1, HDMI 2, etc.).
If the source is incorrect, the laptop will not display, even though the laptop output is functioning
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normally.
Since the projector is powered on, and the laptop is already set to “Duplicate,” and cables are good,
the most likely cause is:
✔ The projector is set to the wrong input source.
This is a common real-world issue covered under “video and projector troubleshooting.”
Why the other answers are incorrect
A . Projector may support HDMI; this is not the “most likely.”
B . “Extend” is not required — “Duplicate” works for projectors.
C . A failed HDMI port is possible but not the most likely scenario.
Final Answe r: D
Explanation:
Question: 248
A user’s laptop keyboard is distorted and is no longer flat. Which of the following components most
likely failed?
- Battery
- RAM
- Keyboard
- HDD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation
CompTIA A+ describes swollen or warped laptop chassis components as a classic symptom of a
failing or swollen lithium-ion battery.
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A swollen battery can:
Warp the keyboard
Push the bottom panel outward
Bend or distort the laptop frame
This is a safety hazard and requires immediate replacement.
Why the other answers are incorrect
B . RAM – Cannot cause physical warping.
C . Keyboard – May fail electronically, but does not physically deform itself.
D . HDD – Located away from the keyboard and cannot distort the chassis.
Final Answe r: A
Question: 249
A consultant is assessing the wireless configurations for a small office. The existing equipment uses
WEP encryption and operates on the default channel. The office is in a crowded urban area with
many nearby networks. Which of the following is the best way to improve the wireless network
performance?
- Replacing the access point
- Disabling SSID broadcasting
- Enabling MAC address filtering
- Updating the firmware
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation
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The wireless environment is crowded, and the office is using:
WEP encryption → obsolete, insecure, and supported only by outdated hardware
Default channel → likely causes interference in a busy area
CompTIA A+ emphasizes:
WEP should be replaced with WPA2 or WPA3
Older APs that only support WEP cannot simply be updated
Newer APs also allow dual-band / multiple channels to avoid interference
Therefore, the best solution is:
✔ Replace the access point with a modern WPA2/WPA3-capable AP that supports improved channel
selection.
Why the other options are incorrect
B . Disabling SSID broadcast – Does nothing for performance or security.
C . MAC filtering – Ineffective for performance and easily bypassed.
D . Updating firmware – Cannot upgrade WEP hardware to WPA2/3 if hardware limitations exist.
Final Answe r: A
Question: 250
A customer is using port 110 for email. However, the customer wants to upgrade to a more secure
connection that automatically synchronizes with the server. Which of the following should the
customer use?
- IMAP
- HTTPS
- SMTP
- SFTP
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Port 110 is used by POP3, a protocol designed for downloading emails from a remote server to a
local client. POP3 does not inherently synchronize changes (such as read status, folder organization,
or deletions) between devices. The customer wants a more secure connection that automatically
synchronizes with the server, which directly aligns with the functions of IMAP (Internet Message
Access Protocol).
IMAP typically uses port 143 for unencrypted connections and 993 for secure, encrypted connections
(IMAPS). It is designed for modern email usage—supporting multi-device access, live synchronization
across clients, and server-stored mail. When a user reads, deletes, or moves an email using IMAP,
these changes are reflected on the server and visible on every device logged into the same account.
CompTIA A+ emphasizes that IMAP is preferred for users requiring constant synchronization, mobile
access, and cloud-based email management, while POP3 is considered outdated. IMAP also supports
secure, encrypted communication when paired with SSL/TLS.
HTTPS and SFTP do not handle email retrieval, and SMTP is a sending protocol, not a retrieval
protocol. Therefore, IMAP is the only correct and CompTIA-aligned upgrade option.
Question: 251
A technician must install a printer at a corporate office for all employees to use. Which of the
following is the best option?
- Print server
- Bluetooth printing
- Cloud printing
- Wi-Fi Direct
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a corporate office environment where multiple employees must share a single printer, the most
efficient and manageable solution is a print server. A print server centralizes print management,
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queues print jobs, handles driver distribution, and provides access control. CompTIA A+ highlights
print servers as the enterprise-standard method for managing shared printing resources because
they ensure reliability, scalability, and better network performance.
Bluetooth printing and Wi-Fi Direct are short-range, peer-to-peer technologies meant for one-to-one
or small-scale printing. They lack user authentication management, enterprise security controls, and
cannot efficiently support dozens or hundreds of print requests simultaneously. Cloud printing
requires internet reliance and external service routing, which introduces latency, potential
downtime, and privacy concerns—often unsuitable for corporate networks, especially those with
sensitive internal documents.
A print server allows users to connect to the printer through a standard network infrastructure (wired
or wireless), and technicians can configure permissions, monitor print loads, and troubleshoot from a
central location. It integrates seamlessly with enterprise directory services such as Active Directory,
enabling controlled access and auditing. Because of these capabilities, the print server is the best
professional-grade solution for corporate-wide printing needs.
Question: 252
Which of the following cable types must be used when running copper network cable through a
suspended ceiling that is used for air ventilation?
- Plenum
- Multimode
- Coaxial
- Twisted pair
Answer: A
Explanation:
When installing copper network cable in spaces that serve as air-handling plenums, safety
regulations require the use of plenum-rated cable. Suspended ceilings used for ventilation fall into
this category. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that plenum spaces require cable with low-smoke, fireresistant insulation made from specialized materials that limit toxic emissions during combustion.
Plenum-rated cabling (CMP) is designed to meet strict fire codes such as NFPA 70 (National Electrical
Code). It prevents smoke-filled ventilation pathways, which could rapidly spread fire or toxic fumes
throughout a building. Standard PVC-jacketed twisted pair cables are not permitted in plenum spaces
because they produce thick, toxic smoke when burned.
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Multimode cable refers to fiber optics, not copper cabling. Coaxial cable is used for broadband and
certain RF applications but does not inherently meet plenum safety requirements unless specifically
plenum-rated. Twisted pair describes the cable’s internal structure (Cat5e, Cat6, etc.), but it does not
indicate the type of jacket. Only plenum-rated twisted pair is acceptable.
Therefore, the correct answer is Plenum, as it ensures compliance with safety standards and building
codes, prevents hazardous conditions, and aligns with CompTIA best practices for structured cabling
installations.
Question: 253
Which of the following DNS records displays the destination of incoming email on a domain?
- CNAME
- TXT
- MX
- AAAA
Answer: C
Explanation:
DNS contains different record types that serve specific purposes. To determine where incoming email
should be delivered for a particular domain, DNS uses an MX (Mail Exchange) record. CompTIA A+
identifies MX records as essential for routing mail from external senders to the appropriate mail
server assigned to a domain.
The MX record specifies:
The mail server hostname responsible for receiving messages
Priority values, which determine which server to try first
The server destination for SMTP traffic
When someone sends an email, the sending mail server queries DNS to find the MX record for the
recipient’s domain. The SMTP server then relays the email to the server listed in that record.
CNAME is used for aliasing hostnames, TXT is used for verification/security (SPF, DKIM), and AAAA
maps a hostname to an IPv6 address. None of these direct email delivery. Only MX records are
designed to instruct mail servers where to deliver incoming email.
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Thus, the correct answer is MX.
Question: 254
A technician upgrades a CPU heat sink with a higher-performing model. While stress testing the
computer, the technician finds that the CPU temperatures have drastically increased. Which of the
following is most likely causing the issue?
- Decreased CPU voltage
- Higher fan RPM
- Airflow interruption
- Missing thermal paste
Answer: D
Explanation:
Whenever a CPU heat sink is removed or replaced, thermal paste must be reapplied. Thermal paste
fills microscopic gaps between the CPU heat spreader and the heat sink, ensuring efficient heat
transfer. Without it, there is a significant air gap, which acts as an insulator, causing CPU
temperatures to rise dramatically even under light load. CompTIA A+ stresses thermal compound
application as a key step in CPU cooling installation.
The scenario indicates that temperatures increased drastically after upgrading to a better heat sink. A
higher-performing heat sink should improve temperatures, not worsen them—unless a critical
installation step was missed. Missing thermal paste is the most common cause of this symptom and
easily explains the sudden overheating.
Decreased CPU voltage would lower temperatures, not raise them. Higher fan RPM increases cooling
efficiency, not reduces it. Airflow interruption is possible but less likely in a simple heat sink upgrade
scenario unless the technician installed the CPU cooler incorrectly; however, the most direct and
common cause described by CompTIA is missing thermal paste.
Thus, D is the correct answer.
Question: 255
A technician needs to replace a laptop’s display assembly. Which of the following should the
technician do to complete this task?
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- Reattach the heat sinks.
- Reconnect the wireless antennas.
- Install a new CPU fan.
- Reset the BIOS to default settings.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Laptop display assemblies typically include not only the LCD panel but also the webcam,
microphone, display cable, and critically, the Wi-Fi antennas. In most laptops, Wi-Fi antennas are
built into the display bezel, because the elevated position allows for stronger wireless signal
reception. When replacing the entire display assembly, the antennas must be carefully disconnected
and reconnected during reinstallation.
CompTIA A+ emphasizes proper cable routing and antenna reattachment as essential steps in laptop
hardware disassembly and reassembly. Failing to reconnect these antennas results in weak or
nonfunctional wireless connectivity, even though the display replacement itself may be successful.
Heat sinks and CPU fans are located on the motherboard and are unrelated to display assembly
replacement. Resetting BIOS settings is unnecessary unless troubleshooting firmware-related issues,
not replacing hardware components like a display. Therefore, the only action that aligns with
standard laptop design and CompTIA A+ procedures is ensuring that the wireless antennas are
reconnected.
Thus, the correct answer is B.
Question: 256
Which of the following best describes a Type 2 hypervisor?
- It works as a firewall to control network traffic.
- It interacts directly with the underlying hardware.
- It runs on a host operating system.
- It brings higher CPU capabilities to virtual machines.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ divides hypervisors into two main categories: Type 1 (bare-metal) and Type 2 (hosted).
A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing host operating system such as Windows, macOS, or
Linux. It relies on the host OS for device drivers, hardware interaction, and resource management.
Examples include VMware Workstation, Oracle VirtualBox, and Parallels Desktop.
Type 2 hypervisors are ideal for lab environments, testing, learning, and small-scale virtualization
because they do not require dedicated hardware or direct hardware control. The host OS loads first,
and the hypervisor runs as an application, allowing users to create and manage virtual machines
from within the OS environment.
Option B describes a Type 1 hypervisor, which installs directly on hardware without a host OS. Option
A is unrelated, as firewalls are separate from virtualization technology. Option D is incorrect because
hypervisors do not inherently increase CPU capabilities; they merely allocate existing hardware
resources to virtual machines.
Thus, the correct and CompTIA-aligned description of a Type 2 hypervisor is that it runs on a host
operating system.
Question: 257
An employee requires a workstation with three high-end graphics cards to render 3-D models. A
technician must choose a power supply that meets the power requirements for the components and
takes into consideration the mission-critical nature of the work. Which of the following meet the
requirements? (Select two).
- 12V output
- Modularity
- 20-pin motherboard connector
- Redundancy
- 3.3V output
- 240 VAC input
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
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A workstation running three high-end GPUs requires a power supply capable of both high wattage
and stable, reliable output. In CompTIA A+ power supply fundamentals, modularity and redundancy
are emphasized for high-performance and mission-critical systems.
Modularity (B) allows the technician to connect only the necessary cables, reducing clutter,
improving airflow, and enabling proper cable routing to multiple GPUs. High-end graphics cards
require multiple PCIe connectors, and modular PSUs provide the flexibility to attach the exact
number of required GPU power cables. This is important for systems where space management and
cooling efficiency directly affect performance and component longevity.
Redundancy (D) is critical for mission-critical workstations used for 3-D modeling and rendering. A
redundant power supply ensures that if one PSU module fails, the system continues running without
interruption. CompTIA A+ highlights redundancy as a key feature in professional environments
where uptime is essential. These systems typically use dual hot-swappable power modules to
guarantee continuous power delivery.
The other options do not meaningfully address the requirements. A 12V output is standard on all
PSUs. A 20-pin connector is outdated; modern motherboards use 24-pin. The 3.3V rail is not relevant
to GPU loads, and 240 VAC input only refers to wall power compatibility, not PSU capability.
Therefore, modularity and redundancy best meet the workstation’s needs.
Question: 258
A shared printer experiences an outage when users submit numerous print jobs at the same time.
Which of the following will an engineer most likely do after verifying network connectivity?
- Reboot the server.
- Reinstall the printer drivers.
- Reset the printer to factory settings.
- Restart the spooler service.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In networked print environments, print jobs are processed through a system service called the print
spooler. CompTIA A+ stresses that when shared printers fail due to job overload, the problem often
lies with a hung or overloaded spooler service, especially when multiple jobs are sent
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simultaneously. The spooler queues, organizes, and processes print jobs; if it becomes overwhelmed
or corrupted, printing stops completely even though the network and printer hardware remain
functional.
After verifying network connectivity—as the question states— the next logical and CompTIA-aligned
troubleshooting step is to restart the spooler service (D). Restarting it clears stuck or corrupt jobs,
reinitializes print processing, and restores functionality without requiring a full server reboot or
reinstallation of drivers.
Rebooting the server (A) may work but is unnecessarily disruptive and affects multiple services.
Reinstalling printer drivers (B) is only warranted for driver corruption issues and is not the first step
for spooler congestion. Resetting the printer to factory defaults (C) erases settings and is far too
drastic for a simple print queue issue.
Therefore, the most efficient and technically correct action is restarting the print spooler service,
restoring printing immediately while maintaining normal server operations.
Question: 259
Which of the following tools will a technician most likely use to identify an unlabeled network
connection?
- Network tap
- Loopback plug
- Cable tester
- Toner probe
Answer: D
Explanation:
To locate or identify an unlabeled network connection, the tool most suited for tracing cables
through walls, ceilings, or patch panels is a toner probe (also called a tone generator and probe kit).
CompTIA A+ describes this tool as essential for cable identification: the technician attaches the tone
generator to one end of the network cable, and the probe detects the signal on the other end, even
across long distances or through bundled wiring.
This makes the toner probe ideal for environments where cables are unlabeled, routed through
structured cabling systems, or mixed with other wires. It allows the technician to listen for the
distinctive tone, confirming the cable’s termination point.
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A cable tester (C) verifies wiring integrity and pinouts but cannot trace a cable through physical
pathways. It is used after identification, not during it. A loopback plug (B) is used for port testing and
NIC diagnostics, not cable tracing. A network tap (A) is used for traffic monitoring, security analysis,
and packet capture; it does not help locate cables.
Therefore, the toner probe is the correct tool for identifying and tracing an unlabeled network cable,
aligning with CompTIA’s recommended cable management and troubleshooting procedures.
Question: 260
A computer training institute needs to implement multiple VLANs that must:
- Connect to each other with minimum hardware
- Communicate traffic at wire speed
Which of the following is the most suitable?
- Web application firewall
- DDoS appliance
- Layer 3 switch
- Router
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Layer 3 switch is the optimal solution when multiple VLANs must intercommunicate while
maintaining high performance and minimal hardware complexity. CompTIA A+ explains that Layer 3
switches combine the capabilities of switching (Layer 2) and routing (Layer 3), allowing VLAN traffic
to be routed internally at wire speed, without the latency typically associated with traditional
routers.
Layer 3 switches use hardware-based routing, meaning they forward inter-VLAN traffic using ASICs
(Application-Specific Integrated Circuits). This allows them to achieve extremely fast throughput,
ideal for environments like computer training institutes where multiple VLANs may be used for
student labs, instructor networks, and administrative traffic.
A router (D) can route between VLANs but introduces more latency due to software-based routing
and typically requires additional equipment. A Web application firewall (A) and DDoS appliance (B)
are security devices unrelated to internal VLAN communication.
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Because the institute requires minimal hardware and high-speed inter-VLAN communication, the
Layer 3 switch is the only CompTIA-supported device that meets both requirements simultaneously.
Question: 261
A technician has built a new computer. On the initial startup, the computer passes POST but will not
turn on the operating system. Which of the following components has failed?
- Audio card
- CPU
- Power supply
- HDD
Answer: D
Explanation:
When a newly built computer successfully passes POST, it indicates that the CPU, RAM,
motherboard, video output, and other essential components are functioning at a hardware level.
POST will typically fail or display error codes if there are problems with the CPU, RAM, GPU, or power
delivery. Therefore, the fact that POST succeeds allows us to eliminate those components from
suspicion.
The issue arises after POST, when the system attempts to load an operating system. For the OS to
load, the BIOS/UEFI must detect a working storage device—such as an HDD, SSD, or NVMe drive—
containing a bootable OS. If the computer cannot locate or read the drive, the system will halt at a
boot error, such as “No boot device found,” “Insert boot media,” or similar messages. This is
consistent with a failed or improperly connected HDD.
A failed HDD prevents access to boot files, even though the rest of the system hardware functions
normally. Audio cards are irrelevant to booting. A failed CPU would cause a POST failure, not an OS
loading issue. A faulty power supply would affect system stability during POST, not specifically OS
boot failure unless the system is not powering at all.
Thus, the failed component is the HDD.
Question: 262
A user’s smartphone frequently disconnects from Wi-Fi networks, particularly in crowded areas like
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airports and coffee shops. The user also notices that their device shows a lower Wi-Fi signal strength
compared to other devices in the same location. Which of the following is likely contributing to the
smartphone’s Wi-Fi connectivity issues?
- The smartphone’s antenna may be malfunctioning.
- The smartphone may have an outdated Wi-Fi standard.
- The smartphone may be experiencing interference from nearby devices.
- The smartphone’s power settings may be affecting performance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The symptoms clearly point to a hardware-level signal degradation issue, which is most commonly
caused by a malfunctioning or damaged Wi-Fi antenna in the smartphone. CompTIA A+ mobile
device troubleshooting emphasizes comparing the affected device’s signal strength with other
nearby devices. In this case, other devices in the same location have stronger Wi-Fi signals, meaning
the network itself is functioning normally. The consistent low signal across multiple networks
strongly suggests antenna failure.
Modern smartphones use internal antenna assemblies located along the frame or behind the back
cover. If the antenna becomes loose, damaged, or obstructed, the device may show weak or unstable
Wi-Fi connectivity, especially in crowded environments where strong, stable reception is required to
maintain a connection.
Option B (outdated Wi-Fi standard) would limit speed but not cause significant signal weakness
compared to surrounding devices. Option C (interference) affects all devices in an area similarly—not
just one device. Option D (power settings) may reduce background activity or scanning frequency,
but it does not cause consistently low signal strength.
Therefore, the most likely cause is a malfunctioning Wi-Fi antenna inside the smartphone.
Question: 263
A drive for a RAID 1 array fails. Users are concerned that information could be lost. Which of the
following is the best way to manage the situation?
- Repairing and reinstalling the defective disk to recover any files
- Discarding the defective disk without further action
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- Replacing the defective disk and syncing the new one so that all files are retained
- Finding the latest backup of the legacy server and restoring it to transfer the files
Answer: C
Explanation:
A RAID 1 array uses disk mirroring, meaning all data is written identically to two drives. When one
drive fails, the other contains a complete, current copy of the data. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that
RAID 1 is designed for fault tolerance, allowing continued operation even after a disk failure.
The correct action is to replace the defective drive and allow the RAID controller to rebuild (sync) the
mirror onto the new disk. This restores redundancy and ensures ongoing data protection. The system
can typically continue running during the rebuild process.
Option A is incorrect because attempting to repair a failed drive is unreliable and unnecessary—RAID
1 already provides a healthy copy. Option B ignores the importance of restoring redundancy, leaving
the system vulnerable to data loss if the remaining drive fails. Option D (restore from backup) is
unnecessary because RAID 1 already preserves the data.
Therefore, the best solution is to install a new drive and resynchronize the array, preserving all data
with minimal disruption.
Question: 264
Which of the following connection methods allows a mobile device to share an LTE connection with
other nearby devices?
- Bluetooth
- NFC
- Cellular
- Hotspot
Answer: D
Explanation:
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Mobile devices can share their LTE or cellular data connection using a feature called tethering, more
commonly known as hotspot mode. According to CompTIA A+ objectives on mobile networking
technologies, a hotspot allows a smartphone or tablet to become a mini wireless router,
broadcasting a Wi-Fi signal that nearby devices can connect to. The LTE (or 5G) connection is then
shared over Wi-Fi, enabling laptops, tablets, or other phones to access the internet through the
mobile device.
Bluetooth is capable of tethering but provides much lower bandwidth and slower speeds—not ideal
for sharing LTE widely. NFC is used for close-range data exchange or payment transactions and
cannot share internet service. “Cellular” refers to the phone’s own mobile network connection, not
the mechanism for sharing it with others.
Hotspot functionality is specifically built into modern mobile OSs and supports WPA2/3 encryption,
password protection, and device whitelisting. This makes it the most common and efficient method
to share LTE connectivity with multiple nearby devices.
Thus, Hotspot (D) is the correct answer.
Question: 265
Which of the following should a technician create to assign a permanent IP address to a PC using
DHCP?
- Reservation
- Lease
- Exclusion
- Scope option
Answer: A
Explanation:
DHCP normally assigns IP addresses dynamically using timed leases, meaning the address may
change after expiration. However, many devices—such as servers, printers, or specialized
workstations—require permanent, predictable IP addresses. CompTIA A+ identifies a DHCP
reservation as the correct method for assigning a consistent IP while still using DHCP.
A reservation binds a device’s MAC address to a specific IP address in the DHCP server. Each time the
device requests an address, the DHCP server recognizes the MAC address and issues the same IP.
This provides reliability while still allowing centralized management of network addressing.
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A lease is temporary and not permanent. An exclusion simply removes certain IP addresses from the
assignable pool—it does not assign any device a fixed address. A scope option configures additional
network parameters such as DNS, gateway, or WINS settings but does not assign static IPs.
Therefore, a reservation is the correct method to permanently assign an IP address using DHCP
without requiring static configuration on the device itself.
Question: 266
A small business is growing and wants to scale its computing capacity. The business wants to
continue using on-site equipment until it is EOL. The solution must be able to share data with the
local data center. Which of the following models should a technician suggest?
- Public
- Community
- Hybrid
- Private
- SaaS
Answer: C
Explanation:
The requirements describe an environment transitioning gradually from on-site hardware to scalable
cloud services. The business wishes to continue using its existing local equipment until end of life,
while also expanding computing resources beyond what the on-premises infrastructure can handle.
Additionally, the cloud environment must be able to share data with the internal data center.
This aligns perfectly with a hybrid cloud model, which CompTIA A+ defines as a combination of
private (on-premises) and public cloud resources operating together. Hybrid cloud enables secure
data sharing, workload distribution, and scaling without eliminating existing hardware investments.
It allows organizations to offload high-demand processes to the cloud while maintaining sensitive
data or critical services on-site.
A private cloud (D) would not allow scaling into a public provider efficiently. A public cloud (A)
replaces internal resources instead of complementing them. A community cloud (B) is shared among
organizations with similar compliance requirements—not applicable here. SaaS (E) refers to hosted
applications, not infrastructure scalability.
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Thus, a Hybrid cloud model fulfills all stated requirements: seamless data sharing, scalable
computing, and continued use of on-site equipment.
Question: 267
Which of the following describes an environment in which virtual machines are hosted on premises
and in a cloud?
- Hybrid
- Public
- Private
- SaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
A hybrid environment combines both on-premises infrastructure and cloud-based resources,
allowing virtual machines to operate seamlessly between the two. CompTIA A+ describes hybrid
cloud as a deployment model where organizations maintain their own private servers or
virtualization hosts while also leveraging public cloud platforms such as AWS, Azure, or Google
Cloud. This model supports flexibility, scalability, and gradual migration, making it ideal for
businesses not ready to fully abandon local infrastructure.
In this model, workloads can move between the local environment and the cloud depending on
performance requirements, cost considerations, or redundancy needs. Additionally, hybrid clouds
allow resource sharing, data synchronization, and load balancing across both environments.
A public cloud hosts resources entirely in the provider’s data center, offering no on-premises
integration. A private cloud exists solely within the organization’s infrastructure with no external
shared resources. SaaS delivers applications, not infrastructure, meaning it cannot host or manage
virtual machines.
Therefore, an environment where VMs exist both on-site and in the cloud is best described as a
Hybrid cloud.
Question: 268
A user with a home office wants to add additional devices to the existing internet service while
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maintaining minimal cost and administration. Which of the following provides the needed
functionality?
- DSL modem
- Firewall
- Unmanaged switch
- Cable modem
Answer: C
Explanation:
To add additional wired network devices in a simple and cost-effective manner, the best solution is
an unmanaged switch. CompTIA A+ explains that unmanaged switches require no configuration,
provide instant port expansion, and operate using plug-and-play functionality. This makes them ideal
for home offices where the user wants more Ethernet ports without dealing with administrative
overhead or complex setup.
An unmanaged switch automatically forwards traffic using MAC addresses, expanding the network
without altering IP configuration or security settings. It is inexpensive compared to other networking
equipment and requires no firmware updates, VLAN management, or routing knowledge.
A DSL modem or cable modem provides internet service but does not increase the number of
available network ports beyond the single LAN port commonly offered. A firewall controls traffic but
does not expand physical connectivity. Therefore, neither modem nor firewall options meet the
requirement of adding more wired devices.
Thus, the unmanaged switch is the simplest, cheapest, and most practical choice for expanding
connectivity in a home office environment.
Question: 269
A technician is manually configuring network settings on a user’s computer to route network traffic
to a newly deployed firewall. Which of the following should the technician change?
- VPN
- Gateway
- Subnet mask
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- VLAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
The default gateway is the network device responsible for routing traffic from a local computer to
destinations outside its subnet. When a new firewall is deployed and intended to manage outbound
traffic, client devices must be configured to send packets to this firewall. CompTIA A+ identifies the
gateway setting as the key parameter that determines where a workstation sends its external-bound
traffic.
By updating the gateway address to point to the new firewall’s internal interface, all internet-bound
and off-subnet traffic will now pass through the firewall for filtering, inspection, and routing. This
ensures correct traffic flow and enforces security policies.
Changing the VPN settings (A) does not affect local traffic routing unless a VPN tunnel is active.
Subnet mask adjustments (C) determine the network size but do not control routing. VLAN settings
(D) require switch configuration, not workstation changes, and do not dictate default routing
behavior.
Thus, modifying the gateway is the correct and necessary step to route all traffic through the newly
implemented firewall.
Question: 270
Which of the following devices forwards traffic based on MAC addresses?
- Switch
- Router
- Firewall
- Gateway
Answer: A
Explanation:
A network switch operates at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) of the OSI model and forwards traffic using
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MAC addresses. CompTIA A+ teaches that switches maintain a MAC address table, learning which
devices reside on each port. When a frame arrives, the switch checks the destination MAC address
and forwards it only to the appropriate port, reducing unnecessary traffic and improving
performance.
Routers, on the other hand, operate at Layer 3 and forward traffic based on IP addresses, not MAC
addresses. Firewalls inspect traffic for security policies and operate across multiple OSI layers but do
not perform MAC-based forwarding. A gateway is a broad term that generally refers to a device
connecting different networks or protocols, typically involving routing, not MAC-based switching.
Thus, the device specifically responsible for forwarding frames based on MAC address lookup is the
switch.
Question: 271
Which of the following will most likely be installed in an NVMe port on the motherboard of a desktop
PC?
- SATA drive
- Solid-state drive
- SAS drive
- Optical drive
Answer: B
Explanation:
An NVMe port, typically implemented through an M.2 slot, is designed specifically for NVMe-based
solid-state drives (SSDs). CompTIA A+ explains that NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is a highperformance storage protocol that communicates directly with the CPU over PCIe lanes, offering
significantly faster read/write speeds compared to SATA-based SSDs.
SATA drives (A) connect via SATA ports, not NVMe/M.2 PCIe slots. SAS drives (C) are enterprise-level
storage devices requiring SAS controllers and are incompatible with consumer desktop
motherboards. Optical drives (D) use SATA or USB interfaces and cannot be installed in an NVMe slot.
Thus, the only device designed for and compatible with an NVMe slot is a solid-state drive (SSD)
using the NVMe protocol.
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Question: 272
Which of the following wireless frequency ranges involves the use of channels 1, 6, and 11?
- 2.4GHz
- 5GHz
- 6GHz
- 60GHz
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Wi-Fi, the 2.4GHz band contains 14 total channels (depending on region), but only channels 1, 6,
and 11 are considered non-overlapping in most countries. CompTIA A+ highlights the importance of
selecting these channels to minimize interference, especially in environments with multiple wireless
networks or access points.
The 2.4GHz band is narrower than 5GHz, causing adjacent channels to overlap significantly. Using
channels 1, 6, and 11 prevents overlap and reduces signal interference, improving performance and
stability.
5GHz (B) has many non-overlapping channels and does not use the 1/6/11 scheme. The 6GHz band
(C) is part of Wi-Fi 6E and uses entirely different channel planning. The 60GHz band (D) supports
short-range high-speed connections like WiGig, not traditional Wi-Fi channels.
Therefore, the 2.4GHz band is the correct answer.
Question: 273
Which of the following types of RAM is most likely used in data centers and in high-performance
machines?
- ECC
- Single-channel
- Unbuffered
- RDIMM
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Data centers and high-performance servers prioritize stability and fault tolerance. CompTIA A+
identifies ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM as the standard memory used in such environments. ECC
RAM automatically detects and corrects single-bit memory errors, preventing system crashes, data
corruption, and downtime—critical requirements for servers running mission-critical workloads.
ECC memory is commonly paired with registered/buffered modules (RDIMM) for additional stability,
but ECC itself is the defining feature required in data center environments. Non-ECC, unbuffered
memory is used in consumer desktops where minor memory errors pose minimal risk.
Single-channel memory (B) is simply a configuration and does not imply reliability. Unbuffered RAM
(C) is not used in enterprise-grade systems because it lacks error correction and electrical
stabilization. RDIMM (D) includes buffering but may come with or without ECC; however, ECC is the
key requirement highlighted by the question.
Therefore, the correct answer is ECC RAM.
Question: 274
Some users are unable to access their workstations. An administrator runs ipconfig on one of the
workstations and sees the following:
The administrator runs the following command and receives this output:
Which of the following is the source of issue?
- Web server
- Router
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- DNS
- DHCP
Answer: B
Explanation:
The workstation’s IP configuration (192.168.1.27/24 with gateway 192.168.1.1) shows that it has a
correct IP address, correct subnet mask, and expected default gateway for a typical small office
network. Because the IP is in the correct private range and not an APIPA address (169.254.x.x), this
also confirms that DHCP is functioning properly. Therefore, option D (DHCP) cannot be the cause.
The user then pings the default gateway at 192.168.1.1, which should be the router—the device
providing routing between local devices and outside networks. The repeated “Request timed out”
responses indicate the workstation cannot reach the router at all. This type of failure points directly
to a router outage, a powered-off router, a failed router interface, or a physical disconnection of the
router from the switch.
If DNS (C) were the issue, the user would still be able to ping the IP address of the gateway because
DNS is not required for IP-to-IP connectivity. A web server (A) has no relation to local gateway
communication and does not affect workstation access.
Since the workstation has a valid IP but cannot reach its default gateway, the failure point is the
router.
Question: 275
Which of the following should a technician check when the display of a computer Is flickering?
- LCD type
- Refresh rate
- Screen resolution
- Pixel density
Answer: B
Explanation:
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Display flickering is most commonly caused by an incorrect or unstable refresh rate setting. The
refresh rate is the number of times per second (measured in Hz) that a monitor redraws the image.
CompTIA A+ teaches that LCD, LED, and especially older CRT displays can exhibit flickering if the
refresh rate is set too low or to a value unsupported by the monitor.
For modern displays, typical refresh rates are 60 Hz, 75 Hz, 120 Hz, 144 Hz, and higher. If the refresh
rate is mismatched—such as manually set above the monitor’s rated capability—the screen may
flicker, blank intermittently, or show instability. Similarly, if the refresh rate is set too low, the user
may perceive visible flicker, eye strain, or shimmering on the display.
Checking and adjusting the refresh rate through the operating system’s display settings (or GPU
control panel) is the first and most direct troubleshooting step for flickering issues.
The LCD type (A) has no bearing on flickering once installed. Screen resolution (C) affects clarity and
scaling but does not cause flicker by itself. Pixel density (D) is a hardware characteristic and cannot
cause flickering.
Thus, the correct component to check when diagnosing display flicker is the refresh rate.
Question: 276
Marketing department users report network performance degradation in the morning and early
afternoon, but sales and customer service department users do not report any issues. All structured
cabling Is Cat 5e. All departments are connected to a core switch. The running network configuration
shows the following:
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Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issues?
- The marketing department subnet has an error.
- The structured Cat 5e cabling is outdated.
- The interfaces are configured with Incorrect IP addresses.
- The marketing department Interface is running at 10/100.
Answer: D
Explanation:
From the configuration, the Sales and Customer Service ports are hard-set to full duplex, 1000 Mbps,
while the Marketing interface (GigabitEthernet0/3) is set to duplex auto and speed auto. CompTIA
A+ explains that mismatched or lower-negotiated speeds and duplex settings can cause noticeable
network slowdowns, collisions, and retransmissions—especially at busy times of the day when
utilization is high.
Because all cabling is Cat 5e, it fully supports Gigabit Ethernet, so the cabling is not the limiting
factor. The IP addresses are all in the same subnet (192.168.1.0/24) and formatted correctly, so there
is no subnet or addressing problem. That rules out options A and C.
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With speed auto, the Marketing port may be negotiating only 10/100 Mbps, or even a duplex
mismatch (e.g., half duplex vs full). This would severely limit throughput compared to the gigabit
links used by the other departments. In peak periods, that slower link would become congested first,
which matches the users’ reports of performance degradation only in Marketing.
Therefore, the most likely cause is that the Marketing interface is operating at 10/100 instead of
1000 Mbps, making option D correct.
Question: 277
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- The subnet mask Is Incorrect.
- NetBIOS is enabled.
- DHCP is enabled.
- DNS servers are manually set.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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The key detail in the ipconfig output is that the system is receiving an IP address, subnet mask,
default gateway, and DHCP server information via DHCP, but the DNS servers shown are 8.8.8.8 and
8.8.4.4, which are Google’s public DNS servers. In most corporate networks, DNS is provided
internally by the DHCP server—usually the same device assigning the IP address. When DNS values
are different from DHCP-provided defaults, it indicates manual DNS configuration.
CompTIA A+ emphasizes that mismatched DNS settings can cause browsing issues, name-resolution
delays, or an inability to access internal resources. DNS is critical because it translates domain names
into IP addresses; if manually configured, the device bypasses the organization’s DNS server and may
not resolve internal hostnames.
The subnet mask is correct for a Class B private network subdivided using /24 (255.255.255.0).
NetBIOS being enabled is common and not a cause of connectivity issues here. DHCP being enabled
is normal and functioning correctly, as shown by the proper IP lease obtained.
Thus, the anomalous and most likely problematic configuration is manually configured DNS, making
Option D correct.
Question: 278
A user receives an error when installing a new email app on their phone. Technician verifies OS is
updated and app is supported. What should the technician check next?
- Storage
- Battery health
- SIM card
- Processor
Answer: A
Explanation:
When an application fails to install on a smartphone despite being supported by the OS and device
type, CompTIA A+ stresses that the most common cause is insufficient storage. Mobile devices
require not only space for the app itself but also additional temporary space for the installation
process, cached data, and updates. If internal storage is nearly full, the app store will display
installation errors—even if the OS and hardware meet requirements.
Battery health has no impact on app installation. A SIM card is unrelated to installing local
applications—it only affects cellular connectivity. Processor architecture issues would have been
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caught during compatibility checking, but the technician already verified the device supports the
application.
Therefore, after confirming compatibility, the next logical step is to check available storage space. If
storage is low, deleting unused apps, clearing cached data, or transferring media to cloud storage or
an SD card typically resolves the installation issue.
Thus, Option A: Storage is the correct answer.
Question: 279
Which internet connection type will most likely experience interference from rain?
- Fiber
- Cable
- Satellite
- DSL
Answer: C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ identifies satellite internet as the connection type most susceptible to weather-related
interference, particularly rain, snow, and heavy cloud cover. This phenomenon is known as rain fade.
Satellite connections rely on high-frequency microwave signals transmitted between a dish antenna
at the customer site and an orbiting satellite. Moisture in the atmosphere absorbs and scatters these
signals, causing latency spikes, reduced bandwidth, or complete signal loss during storms.
Fiber (A) uses light signals through glass fiber and is immune to electromagnetic and weather
interference. Cable internet (B) uses shielded coaxial lines buried or run overhead, but rain does not
affect signal quality in normal conditions. DSL (D) uses telephone lines, which may degrade with
physical line issues, but not directly due to rain in the same way satellite is affected.
Thus, satellite internet is most likely to experience signal degradation during rain conditions.
Question: 280
While using a laptop and Bluetooth headset for conference calls, a user notices intermittent sound
issues. The user frequently walks between office rooms during calls, leaving the laptop in place. The
office network uses fiber internet and has two connected APs. What is the MOST likely cause?
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- The number of available APs is inadequate.
- The user is moving in and out of range.
- The APs are not in mesh mode.
- The internet connection is too slow.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bluetooth audio issues are typically related to distance and signal strength, not internet connectivity
or Wi-Fi access points. Bluetooth devices—especially headsets—generally have a limited effective
range of around 10 meters (33 feet) for Class 2 Bluetooth, which is common in consumer laptops and
headsets. When the user leaves the room and walks into adjacent offices, they are likely moving
beyond the optimal Bluetooth range or passing through walls that weaken the signal.
CompTIA A+ highlights that Bluetooth uses low-power radio frequencies easily disrupted by physical
obstructions, distance, and interference. Since the laptop remains stationary and the user moves, the
headset becomes progressively further from the laptop, causing intermittent audio dropouts,
stuttering, or loss of connection.
The number of APs (A) is irrelevant because the headset is not using Wi-Fi. Mesh mode (C) applies
only to wireless AP-to-AP communication. The internet connection (D) is high-quality fiber and
conference calls work fine when stationary, so the issue is not bandwidth or WAN throughput.
Thus, the most likely cause is that the user is moving in and out of Bluetooth range.
Question: 281
A company wants to enable access to corporate email on smartphones. Employees must install
software that separates corporate and personal data. Which should the company implement?
- Encryption
- Network access control
- Mobile device management
- Endpoint protection
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Answer: C
Explanation:
The requirement to separate corporate and personal data on employee smartphones is a core
function of Mobile Device Management (MDM). CompTIA A+ describes MDM as an enterprise
toolset used to enforce security policies, manage applications, configure email profiles, and separate
work-related data from personal user data. This separation is typically achieved through features
such as containerization, where corporate data is stored in a protected, encrypted workspace that is
isolated from the personal side of the device.
This ensures security, prevents data leakage, and enables IT administrators to remotely wipe
corporate data without affecting the user’s personal information. MDM solutions are widely used in
BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) environments and corporate-issued devices.
Encryption (A) protects data but does not create separation. Network access control (B) restricts
network access but does not manage mobile apps or data separation. Endpoint protection (D) refers
to antivirus/antimalware, not data partitioning.
Thus, Mobile Device Management (MDM) is the correct solution.
Question: 282
A technician installs an external camera on a user’s laptop. When loading meeting software, the
video preview shows a blank screen. What should the technician do next?
- Select the correct camera source.
- Replace the camera.
- Update the camera software.
- Check the camera cable.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Most meeting or conferencing applications default to the built-in laptop camera unless manually
changed. When an external camera is connected, the software may continue to use the default
device, resulting in a blank preview, especially if the internal camera is disabled, covered, or
malfunctioning. CompTIA A+ stresses verifying correct device selection when peripherals are
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installed.
Selecting the correct camera source is a quick, non-invasive test that resolves the issue in the
majority of cases. The technician should open the application’s video settings and choose the
external webcam from the camera dropdown menu.
Replacing the camera (B) is premature without confirming configuration. Updating software (C) is
beneficial but will not resolve a simple input-selection error. Checking the cable (D) is a valid step if
the preview still fails after selecting the device.
Thus, the correct next step is to select the proper camera source.
Question: 283
Which cloud characteristic allows local folders to contain updates made by users or other devices?
- Network share
- Synchronization
- Availability
- Metered utilization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud storage platforms—such as OneDrive, Google Drive, and Dropbox—use synchronization to
ensure that files updated on one device automatically update on all connected devices. CompTIA A+
defines synchronization as a key cloud characteristic that keeps local folders and cloud-stored
versions consistent, enabling seamless multi-device collaboration.
Synchronization allows users to:
Modify files offline and have them sync once online
Access identical data on laptops, desktops, and mobile devices
Ensure real-time updates across multiple users or clients
Maintain version consistency and conflict resolution
A network share (A) is local to an organization and does not automatically sync across devices.
Availability (C) relates to uptime and reliability, not file updates. Metered utilization (D) refers to
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cloud billing models where usage is tracked, not data syncing.
Thus, synchronization is the capability that ensures local folders update dynamically whenever
changes occur.
Question: 284
Which of the following offers access to business productivity applications for a recurring fee?
- SaaS
- DaaS
- PaaS
- IaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Software as a Service (SaaS) provides users access to fully managed applications hosted in the cloud.
CompTIA A+ explains that SaaS is subscription-based and typically billed monthly or annually, which
aligns perfectly with the phrase “recurring fee.” Business productivity applications—such as
Microsoft 365, Google Workspace, Zoom, Slack, and Salesforce—are classic examples of SaaS
offerings.
SaaS applications run entirely in the provider’s cloud environment, eliminating the need for
installation, maintenance, or management by the customer. This makes SaaS ideal for businesses
that need reliable, scalable tools without maintaining their own infrastructure.
DaaS (Desktop as a Service) provides virtual desktops.
PaaS (Platform as a Service) offers a development framework for building applications.
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides virtual servers, storage, and networking—not end-user
productivity apps.
Thus, SaaS is the correct and only model that matches the description of subscription-based access to
productivity applications.
Question: 285
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A software developer wants to test a new application in an environment that limits access to the OS.
Which of the following should the developer implement?
- Container
- Type 2 hypervisor
- VDI
- Quarantined PC
Answer: A
Explanation:
A container is the ideal environment for software testing when access to the underlying operating
system must be restricted. CompTIA A+ explains that containers isolate applications from the host OS
by packaging the app and all its dependencies into a controlled environment. This prevents the
application from modifying or interfering with the host system and ensures predictable, consistent
behavior across environments.
Unlike virtual machines, containers do not include a full OS installation; they share the host OS kernel
but run in isolated user-space environments. This makes them lightweight, fast to deploy, and
secure—perfect for developers testing new or potentially unstable applications.
A Type 2 hypervisor hosts full virtual machines but does not inherently limit OS access. A VDI
provides remote desktops but is not designed for controlled application testing. A quarantined PC is
used for isolating infected or suspicious systems, not structured development testing.
Thus, containers provide the controlled, restricted environment required.
Question: 286
A user cannot access the internet from a corporate laptop. All other employees can. The technician
reviews the laptop’s configuration:
IP Address: 169.254.2.162
Which explains the reason the user cannot access the internet?
- The subnet mask is misconfigured.
- The NIC is not using the latest driver.
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- Network settings are only configured to IPv6.
- The DHCP server is unable to assign an address.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An IP address beginning with 169.254.x.x is an APIPA address (Automatic Private IP Addressing).
CompTIA A+ explains that APIPA is assigned automatically by Windows when the NIC cannot reach a
DHCP server. This indicates the laptop requested an IP lease but never received one.
APIPA addresses allow only local subnet communication and cannot access the internet, because no
default gateway, DNS, or valid subnet configuration is provided. Since all other employees can access
the internet, the DHCP server is functioning generally, but it is not delivering an address to this
specific laptop—possibly due to cable issues, Wi-Fi authentication failure, DHCP scope exhaustion, or
NIC misconfiguration.
A subnet mask misconfiguration (A) would still show a normal IP, not APIPA. IPv6-only configuration
(C) would not produce a 169.254 address. An outdated NIC driver (B) could cause network instability
but does not directly generate APIPA.
Thus, the root cause is that the DHCP server did not assign an IP address.
Question: 287
Which cloud model provides hardware, storage, networking, and virtualization but requires
customers to manage the OS and applications?
- SaaS
- PaaS
- IaaS
- XaaS
Answer: C
Explanation:
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Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the foundational computing components: virtualized
hardware, storage, networking, and hypervisor resources. CompTIA A+ explains that customers using
IaaS are responsible for installing and maintaining:
The operating system
Applications
Patches, updates, and configurations
This model gives organizations maximum flexibility because they can build custom server
environments without purchasing physical hardware.
In contrast:
SaaS (A) provides fully managed applications—users do not manage OS or software.
PaaS (B) provides a development platform and tools but does not allow OS management.
XaaS (D) is a broad term meaning “anything as a service,” not a specific model.
Thus, IaaS is the only model where OS-level control remains with the customer.
Question: 288
A human resources manager printed a sensitive termination document and forgot to retrieve it from
the printer. Which of the following prevents this situation?
- Badging
- Duplex
- Printer share
- Wireless encryption
Answer: A
Explanation:
Secure badging—often used with “pull printing” or “secure print release”—requires users to
authenticate at the printer before documents are printed. CompTIA A+ highlights this feature as
critical for protecting sensitive data in corporate environments. With badge-based printing, jobs stay
in a secure print queue until the authorized user physically scans their badge.
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This prevents confidential documents, like HR termination notices, from sitting unattended in the
output tray. It also reduces print waste and ensures accountability for printed materials.
Duplex printing (B) simply prints double-sided pages. Printer sharing (C) allows multiple users to use
a printer but does not provide security. Wireless encryption (D) protects network traffic but does not
address abandoned print jobs.
Therefore, badging / secure print release is the correct protective measure.
Question: 289
A user ran out of USB ports on their laptop but wants to plug in more devices. What technology is
best?
- Near-field communication
- Bluetooth
- USB receiver
- Port replicator
Answer: D
Explanation:
A port replicator expands the number and types of ports available to a laptop, including additional
USB ports, video outputs, Ethernet, and more. CompTIA A+ identifies port replicators as solutions for
users needing greater connectivity, especially when docking stations are unnecessary or unavailable.
Port replicators connect through a single USB or proprietary connector and provide multiple
expansion ports instantly. This resolves the issue of limited USB availability without requiring
hardware replacement.
NFC (A) is used for short-range communication, not peripheral connectivity. Bluetooth (B) only
supports wireless peripherals such as mice and headphones, not wired USB devices. A USB receiver
(C) adds wireless capability for one specific device, not general expansion.
Thus, the correct solution is a port replicator.
Question: 290
Which connector is used to uplink a new ISP cable modem to its wall jack?
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- F-type
- LC
- RJ45
- Lightning
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cable modems supplied by ISPs connect to the coaxial wall outlet using an F-type connector.
CompTIA A+ specifies that F-type connectors are threaded coaxial connectors used in broadband
cable internet, cable TV, and some satellite systems. They attach to RG-6 or RG-59 coaxial cable and
provide a secure, shielded connection to the cable provider’s infrastructure.
The cable modem requires this coaxial uplink to receive downstream and upstream signals from the
ISP before converting them into Ethernet on the LAN side.
LC (B) is for fiber optic connectors, not coaxial. RJ45 (C) is an Ethernet connector and is used on the
LAN side of the modem—not on the wall uplink. Lightning (D) is an Apple connector and irrelevant to
networking hardware.
Thus, the correct connector for the ISP cable modem uplink is F-type.
Question: 291
A user reports intermittent latency when accessing an internal website hosted at a remote office.
Which of the following should a technician do? (Select two)
- Run ipconfig /all
- Run ping -t
- Run nslookup
- Examine the physical switchport
- Configure QoS
- Run tracert
- Call ISP
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Answer: B,F
Explanation:
When troubleshooting intermittent latency to a remote internal resource, CompTIA A+ recommends
using tools that help identify where latency occurs and whether it is consistent or fluctuating over
time. The best tools for this scenario are ping -t and tracert.
Ping -t (B) sends continuous ICMP echo requests, allowing the technician to observe packet loss,
fluctuating response times, or timeouts. This helps identify intermittent connectivity problems that
occur at specific times, such as bandwidth congestion, routing instability, or wireless interference.
Tracert (F) maps each hop between the local workstation and the remote office. If latency spikes
occur only after a particular hop—such as a VPN tunnel, MPLS gateway, or inter-office router—that
device becomes the suspected bottleneck. This makes tracert essential for isolating WAN-related
slowdowns.
Ipconfig /all (A) only provides local configuration and does not diagnose latency. Nslookup (C) is for
DNS testing—not latency to a specific internal host. Examining switchports (D) helps with local issues
but not remote latency. QoS (E) is a solution, not a troubleshooting step. Calling ISP (G) may be
premature unless testing confirms ISP-related issues.
Thus, ping -t and tracert are the correct diagnostic tools.
Question: 292
A customer has bare-metal servers running Windows, Linux, and Unix. They want consolidation while
maintaining isolation and compatibility. What should the technician recommend?
- IaaS
- Containers
- Type 2 hypervisor
- VDI
Answer: A
Explanation:
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The customer wants to consolidate multiple physical servers running different operating systems,
including Windows, Linux, and Unix, while maintaining strong isolation between systems. CompTIA
A+ identifies Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) as the best model for hosting fully isolated virtual
machines in a cloud environment, allowing each OS to run independently on its own virtual
hardware.
IaaS provides virtualized computing resources—CPU, RAM, networking, and storage—while allowing
the customer full control over the OS and application layer. This means Windows, Linux, and Unix
VMs can coexist without compatibility concerns because each VM runs its native OS without
modification.
Containers (B) are unsuitable because they share the host OS kernel, meaning they cannot run
different OS families. A Type 2 hypervisor (C) is workstation-based and not designed for enterprise
server consolidation. VDI (D) provides user desktops, not server workload consolidation.
Thus, IaaS is the correct solution for compatibility, isolation, and consolidation across multiple OS
types.
Question: 293
Which RAID type offers double parity?
- RAID 0
- RAID 1
- RAID 5
- RAID 6
Answer: D
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ teaches that RAID 6 is the RAID level that uses double parity, allowing the array to
survive the failure of two drives simultaneously. RAID 6 stripes data across all disks like RAID 5 but
stores two independent sets of parity information, making it far more fault-tolerant.
RAID 0 has no parity and provides only performance. RAID 1 mirrors data but uses no parity. RAID 5
uses single parity and can tolerate only one disk failure. Because the question explicitly asks for
double parity, only RAID 6 is correct.
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Question: 294
A user reports cursor issues on a company laptop. Technician finds a bulge under the trackpad. Which
component should be replaced first?
- Motherboard
- Heat sink
- Battery
- Trackpad
Answer: C
Explanation:
A physical bulge under the trackpad is a classic CompTIA-identified symptom of a swollen lithium-ion
battery. As batteries degrade, internal gas buildup expands the casing, pushing upward on the laptop
chassis—often distorting the trackpad, keyboard, or bottom shell. This can cause cursor issues,
clicking problems, and safety hazards.
Replacing the battery first is essential because swollen batteries can rupture, leak, or ignite. Only
after the battery is removed and replaced should the technician evaluate whether the trackpad
suffered permanent damage.
Replacing the trackpad (D) without addressing the battery fails to correct the root cause. The
motherboard (A) and heat sink (B) are unrelated to the physical bulge.
Thus, the correct first step is replacing the battery.
Question: 295
A user wants scan-to-email functionality on a printer. Which protocol is required?
- SMS
- SMTP
- SFTP
- SMB
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Answer: B
Explanation:
Scan-to-email functions rely on the printer sending scanned documents to an email server. CompTIA
A+ identifies SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) as the protocol responsible for sending email
messages from clients to mail servers. When configuring scan-to-email, the technician must enter:
SMTP server address
Authentication credentials
Port number (25, 465, or 587)
Encryption type (TLS/SSL)
Without SMTP, the printer cannot transmit emails.
SMS (A) refers to text messaging. SFTP (C) is secure file transfer, common for scan-to-folder
workflows, not email. SMB (D) is used for Windows file sharing.
Therefore, the correct protocol is SMTP.
Question: 296
An engineer must implement a solution to facilitate and maintain an organization’s legacy
application until it is retired. The application is currently hosted on three physical servers. Which of
the following is the most suitable concept?
- SAN
- FaaS
- Virtualization
- Configuration management platform
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a legacy application is running on multiple physical servers, and the organization wants to
maintain it until retirement, the best CompTIA-aligned solution is virtualization. Virtualization allows
the engineer to convert existing physical servers into virtual machines (VMs), a process known as P2V
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(Physical-to-Virtual) migration. This reduces hardware footprint, simplifies management, and isolates
the application within a controlled environment. CompTIA A+ emphasizes virtualization for legacy
support because it eliminates dependence on aging physical hardware while preserving application
functionality exactly as before.
Virtual machines also provide snapshots, backups, failover capabilities, and easier resource
allocation, making them more reliable than maintaining old hardware. A SAN (A) provides storage,
not application hosting. FaaS (B) is a serverless model inappropriate for legacy applications that
require full OS environments. A configuration management platform (D) manages software
deployments and settings but does not replace or consolidate physical servers.
Thus, virtualization is the most suitable and industry-standard method for sustaining legacy
applications.
Question: 297
A company wants to migrate a large amount of data from an on-premises server to a cloud provider.
Which connection type is most likely the fastest?
- Coaxial
- DSL
- Fiber
- SAN
Answer: C
Explanation:
When migrating large volumes of data to a cloud provider, CompTIA A+ notes that the transfer speed
is dominated by the WAN (internet) connection speed. Among the given options, fiber-optic internet
(C) provides the highest upload and download throughput, often delivering speeds from 1 Gbps to 10
Gbps or more, depending on the service. Fiber supports symmetrical upload speeds, which is critical
because data migration requires heavy upstream bandwidth.
Coaxial (A) and DSL (B) offer much lower upstream speeds—often under 30 Mbps—making them too
slow for large-scale cloud migration. A SAN (D) is a local storage network that operates within the
data center; it does not provide a path to the cloud and cannot replace an internet connection.
Fiber’s extremely high capacity, low latency, and resistance to electromagnetic interference make it
the best and most efficient option for cloud migration performance.
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Question: 298
A user attempts to print diagrams on 11×17 inch (28×43 cm) paper. The correct paper is loaded, but
the printer keeps prompting for paper. Another identical printer prints successfully. What is the
MOST likely cause?
- Tray settings
- Incorrect driver
- Connectivity issues
- Insufficient permissions
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a printer refuses to use paper that is physically present in the tray, CompTIA A+ identifies tray
configuration settings as the most likely cause. Printers require a match between tray settings (paper
size, paper type, orientation) and the incoming print job’s specifications. If the tray is incorrectly
configured—such as being set to Letter (8.5×11 in) or A4—then the printer will keep prompting for
the correct paper even though 11×17 paper is loaded.
The fact that the technician successfully prints the same diagram on another identical printer proves
that the driver, print job format, and user permissions are correct. This isolates the issue to the local
printer’s configuration. Incorrect drivers (B) would affect printing on both printers. Connectivity
issues (C) would prevent printing entirely, not cause paper prompts. Permissions (D) do not affect
paper-size recognition.
Therefore, the most likely cause is improper tray settings on the user’s printer.
Question: 299
A technician is building a high-powered workstation. When the technician attempts to start the
workstation, nothing happens. The technician verifies that all power connectors are fully seated.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
- The case header pins are not connected.
- The RAM is not fully seated.
- The power supply unit’s wattage is too low.
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- The CPU fan connector is faulty
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a newly built workstation shows no response at all—no fans spinning, no indicator LEDs, and
no POST activity—this indicates that the system is not receiving the signal to power on. Since the
technician has already verified that all primary power connectors are fully seated (including the 24-
pin ATX motherboard connector and the 4-pin or 8-pin CPU power connector), the most likely cause
is that the case header pins are not connected to the motherboard.
According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) hardware installation and troubleshooting concepts, the
power button on the computer case connects to the motherboard via the front-panel (system panel)
header, specifically the PWR_SW pins. If this connector is missing, improperly placed, or connected
to the wrong pins, pressing the power button will do nothing because the motherboard never
receives the power-on signal.
Incorrectly seated RAM typically allows the system to power on but prevents successful POST, often
resulting in beep codes or error lights. An underpowered PSU usually causes instability, random
shutdowns, or failure under load rather than complete inactivity. A faulty CPU fan connector
generally triggers a BIOS warning or shutdown after power-on, not total failure to start.
This scenario directly matches CompTIA’s emphasis on checking front-panel connections as a
primary step when a system does not power on at all.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Hardware Installation, Motherboard
Components, and Power Troubleshooting Sections
Question: 300
A user only has access to basic printer functions. A technician notices that the advanced printer
features are missing. Which of the following actions will fix this issue?
- Modifying the printer settings and rebooting the printer
- Installing the drivers from the printer’s manufacturer
- Restarting the OS and attempting to reprint the document
- Applying the OS-provided patches for the printer
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Answer: B
Explanation:
When a printer only provides basic functionality (such as simple printing without duplexing, color
management, stapling, or finishing options), this typically indicates that the system is using a generic
or basic printer driver rather than the full-featured driver from the printer manufacturer. According
to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printing and troubleshooting objectives, advanced printer features are
enabled through manufacturer-specific drivers, which expose all hardware capabilities to the
operating system.
Operating systems often install default or class drivers automatically, especially when printers are
connected via USB or discovered on a network. While these drivers allow basic printing, they do not
include proprietary features such as high-resolution settings, tray selection, finishing units, or secure
printing options. Installing the correct driver package from the printer manufacturer ensures full
compatibility and unlocks advanced functionality.
Restarting the OS or modifying printer settings will not add missing features if the correct driver is
not installed. OS-provided patches are designed to fix bugs or compatibility issues, not to enable
vendor-specific printer capabilities.
CompTIA explicitly emphasizes verifying and installing manufacturer-recommended drivers as a key
troubleshooting step when printer features are missing or limited.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Printer Installation, Drivers, and
Troubleshooting
Question: 301
An administrator selects a new platform that provides the following benefits:
- Shares a host OS
- Shares kernel resources
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- Rapid start and deployment
- Limited isolation
Which of the following virtualization options did the administrator select?
- Type 1 hypervisor
- Containers
- Virtual desktop
- Virtual machine
Answer: B
Explanation:
The virtualization platform described matches the characteristics of containers. According to
CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization concepts, containers are lightweight virtualization
solutions that share the host operating system and kernel, rather than running separate guest
operating systems. This design allows containers to start almost instantly and be deployed rapidly,
making them highly efficient and scalable.
Because containers share kernel resources, they use significantly fewer system resources compared
to traditional virtual machines. However, this also results in limited isolation, since applications are
not fully separated at the OS level. This tradeoff is a defining characteristic of container-based
virtualization.
A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on hardware and hosts fully isolated virtual machines, each with its
own operating system, which does not align with the shared OS and kernel described. A virtual
machine also includes a full guest OS, leading to slower startup times and greater resource usage. A
virtual desktop refers to user desktop virtualization, not application-level virtualization.
CompTIA highlights containers as an example of application virtualization that prioritizes speed,
efficiency, and portability over complete isolation.
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Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Virtualization Concepts, Containers, and Cloud
Computing
Question: 302
A technician purchases a device that connects directly to the rear of a laptop and provides a one-toone match for every peripheral connection. Which of the following best describes this device?
- USB hub
- Docking station
- KVM switch
- Port replicator
Answer: D
Explanation:
A device that connects directly to a laptop and provides a one-to-one duplication of the laptop’s
existing ports is known as a port replicator. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device
and laptop accessories objectives, a port replicator extends the available connections by mirroring
the laptop’s built-in ports, such as USB, HDMI, Ethernet, and audio. This allows users to quickly
connect peripherals like monitors, keyboards, mice, and network cables without plugging each
device in individually.
Port replicators are typically passive devices and do not add new functionality beyond duplicating
existing ports. They are commonly used in office environments where users frequently dock and
undock laptops.
A docking station, by contrast, often provides additional or enhanced functionality, such as extra
video outputs, higher-power charging, expansion slots, or proprietary connectors. A USB hub only
expands USB connectivity and does not replicate all peripheral connections. A KVM switch is used to
control multiple computers with a single keyboard, video display, and mouse, which is unrelated to
laptop port expansion.
CompTIA distinguishes port replicators as simple port-duplication devices, making them the correct
answer in this scenario.
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Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Mobile Device Accessories and
Laptop Hardware
Question: 303
The power supply for a user’s gaming computer fails. The user buys a replacement online. The user
connects the power supply to the motherboard, the graphics card, and the SSDs, but the computer
fails to start and displays a critical error. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- The computer requires an additional RAM upgrade.
- The wattage is insufficient for all the peripherals.
- The user did not connect the 4-pin connector for the CPU.
- The power supply only operates in a redundant configuration
Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern motherboards require two separate power connections from the power supply: the 24-pin
ATX connector for general motherboard power and a 4-pin or 8-pin CPU (EPS) connector dedicated to
powering the processor. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) power supply installation and
troubleshooting guidelines, failing to connect the CPU power connector commonly results in a
system that does not boot and may display a critical or CPU-related error.
In this scenario, the user connected power to the motherboard, graphics card, and storage devices,
but the system fails to start. This strongly indicates that the CPU power connector was overlooked,
which is a frequent mistake during PSU replacement. Without this connection, the processor cannot
initialize, preventing POST.
Insufficient wattage typically causes instability, shutdowns, or reboots under load rather than
immediate failure with a critical error. RAM upgrades are unrelated to PSU replacement, and
redundant power supplies are used in enterprise systems, not standard gaming PCs.
CompTIA emphasizes verifying all required PSU connectors, especially the CPU power connector, as a
critical troubleshooting step when a system will not power on after a PSU replacement.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Power Supplies, Connectors, and
Troubleshooting
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Question: 304
Which of the following is the standard for Wi-Fi 7?
- 802.1X
- 802.3at
- 802.11be
- 802.15.1
Answer: C
Explanation:
The IEEE standard for Wi-Fi 7 is 802.11be, also known as Extremely High Throughput (EHT).
According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking standards objectives, each Wi-Fi generation
corresponds to a specific IEEE 802.11 amendment. Wi-Fi 7 builds upon Wi-Fi 6/6E by offering
significantly higher throughput, lower latency, and improved performance in high-density
environments.
Option 802.11be is the only choice that represents a wireless LAN (WLAN) standard. 802.1X is an
authentication framework used for network access control, not a Wi-Fi standard. 802.3at defines
Power over Ethernet Plus (PoE+), which supplies electrical power over Ethernet cables. 802.15.1 is
the IEEE standard for Bluetooth.
CompTIA expects candidates to recognize and differentiate wireless standards and their IEEE
designations, especially newer technologies such as Wi-Fi 6, Wi-Fi 6E, and Wi-Fi 7. Identifying
802.11be as Wi-Fi 7 is essential for both exam success and real-world networking scenarios.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Networking Standards and Wireless
Technologies
Question: 305
Which of the following systems most likely contains ECC memory?
- A high-end gaming console
- A file server
- A smartphone
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- A laptop
Answer: B
Explanation:
Error-Correcting Code (ECC) memory is designed to detect and correct single-bit memory errors,
increasing system reliability and data integrity. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) hardware
and memory objectives, ECC memory is most commonly used in servers and enterprise-grade
systems where uptime and data accuracy are critical.
A file server is responsible for storing, managing, and serving data to many users simultaneously.
Memory errors in such systems could lead to data corruption, crashes, or security issues. For this
reason, servers frequently use ECC memory in combination with server-class CPUs and
motherboards that support error correction.
High-end gaming consoles prioritize performance and cost efficiency rather than fault tolerance, and
they do not use ECC memory. Smartphones rely on low-power mobile RAM without error correction,
and laptops typically use non-ECC memory unless they are specialized workstation-class systems,
which is not indicated in this question.
CompTIA emphasizes that ECC memory is associated with mission-critical environments, particularly
servers and enterprise systems, making a file server the most appropriate answer.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – RAM Types, ECC Memory, and Server Hardware
Question: 306
Users in a 200-person call center report that phone calls experience severe performance degradation
on busy days. The technician confirms:
- Upload and download speeds are 50Mbps during a speed test.
- VoIP call prioritization settings are properly configured for the VLAN that the call center uses.
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Which of the following is most likely the cause of this issue?
- The QoS is not configured correctly on the router.
- The switchports dedicated to the call center are flapping.
- The call center’s VLAN is not configured to allow voice traffic.
- The bandwidth dedicated to the call center is insufficient.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic is highly sensitive to latency, jitter, and packet loss, especially in large
environments such as a 200-person call center. Although the technician confirms that VoIP
prioritization (QoS) is configured correctly and speed tests show 50 Mbps upload and download
speeds, overall available bandwidth can still be insufficient during peak usage.
Speed tests measure raw throughput at a point in time and do not reflect real-world congestion
caused by hundreds of simultaneous calls, application usage, and data transfers. On busy days, the
cumulative bandwidth demand likely exceeds the available capacity, leading to degraded call quality
despite correct VLAN and QoS settings.
If QoS were misconfigured or the VLAN did not allow voice traffic, call issues would be consistent at
all times, not only during peak periods. Flapping switchports would cause intermittent connectivity
drops rather than predictable performance degradation correlated with high usage.
CompTIA highlights that bandwidth limitations are a common root cause of VoIP performance
problems in high-density environments, even when prioritization is properly implemented.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Networking Performance, QoS, and VoIP
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Question: 307
A customer reports that internet browsing on their smartphone is fast at the beginning of the month
but significantly slows down toward the end of the month. A technician examines the smartphone
and finds multiple free cloud backup services running with several gigabytes of personal data spread
across each. Data availability is important to the customer. Which of the following is the best way to
resolve the customer’s issue?
- Disabling all cloud backup services except one
- Installing an additional SD card for photos and videos
- Expanding the cache storage to consolidate data
- Configuring data synchronization only over Wi-Fi connections
Answer: D
Explanation:
The described behavior indicates that the customer is likely exceeding their mobile data allowance
each month. Multiple cloud backup services continuously synchronizing gigabytes of data consume
large amounts of cellular bandwidth, which can trigger data throttling by the mobile carrier near the
end of the billing cycle. This results in noticeably slower browsing speeds.
Since data availability is important, disabling backup services entirely is not the best option. Installing
an SD card increases local storage but does not reduce cellular data usage. Expanding cache storage
does not address network bandwidth consumption or carrier throttling.
Configuring data synchronization to occur only over Wi-Fi ensures that backups continue
uninterrupted when the device is connected to a wireless network, while preventing excessive
cellular data usage. This preserves data availability and eliminates unnecessary mobile data
consumption, restoring consistent browsing performance throughout the month.
CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device troubleshooting objectives emphasize managing
background services, synchronization settings, and data usage to resolve performance and
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connectivity issues on smartphones.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Mobile Device Configuration, Data Usage, and
Troubleshooting
Question: 308
Which of the following networking technologies allows for high-speed data transmission over short
distances between devices like smartphones and tablets?
- Near-field communication
- Zigbee
- Infrared
- Wi-Fi Direct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Wi-Fi Direct is designed to provide high-speed, short-range wireless communication directly
between devices such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, and printers without requiring a traditional
wireless access point. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, Wi-Fi Direct
uses standard Wi-Fi radio technology, allowing devices to communicate at speeds comparable to
typical wireless LAN connections.
Near-field communication (NFC) operates at extremely short distances (typically a few centimeters)
and supports very low data transfer rates, making it unsuitable for high-speed data transmission.
Zigbee is a low-power, low-bandwidth protocol commonly used for IoT and home automation
devices, not for high-speed data sharing. Infrared requires line-of-sight and offers limited data rates,
which restricts its usefulness for modern mobile devices.
Wi-Fi Direct is commonly used for tasks such as file sharing, screen mirroring, and device-to-device
printing. CompTIA emphasizes understanding the differences between short-range wireless
technologies, particularly distinguishing high-throughput solutions like Wi-Fi Direct from low-power
or proximity-based technologies.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Wireless Networking Technologies
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Question: 309
Which of the following record types is used to create an alias for a domain?
- CNAME
- AAAA
- TXT
- A
Answer: A
Explanation:
A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used in DNS to create an alias that maps one domain name to
another canonical domain name. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) DNS objectives, CNAME
records allow multiple hostnames to reference the same IP address indirectly by pointing to a single
authoritative domain name.
For example, www.example.com can be configured as a CNAME that points to example.com. When
DNS queries are made, the resolver follows the alias until it reaches an A or AAAA record that
contains the actual IP address.
An A record maps a hostname directly to an IPv4 address, while an AAAA record maps a hostname to
an IPv6 address. A TXT record is used to store arbitrary text data, commonly for verification, email
security (SPF, DKIM), or policy information, not for aliasing.
CompTIA stresses that CNAME records are specifically intended for aliasing and name redirection
within DNS, making them the correct answer.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – DNS Record Types and Name
Resolution
Question: 310
An IP address is automatically assigned to a single workstation in an office, but the technician
confirms the IP address is not in the lease pool. This workstation is having issues accessing the
internet and internal file shares. Which of the following address types has been automatically
assigned?
- APIPA
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- Static
- DHCP
- Public IP
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a workstation automatically assigns itself an IP address that is not part of the DHCP lease pool,
the system has most likely configured an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address. According
to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking fundamentals, APIPA addresses fall within the range
169.254.0.0/16 and are assigned when a device cannot communicate with a DHCP server.
APIPA allows limited local network communication but does not provide access to the internet or
network resources such as internal file shares that require routing or proper IP configuration. This
explains why the workstation experiences connectivity issues.
A static IP address is manually configured and would not be automatically assigned. A DHCP address
would come from the defined lease pool, which the technician has confirmed is not the case. A
public IP address is assigned by an ISP and is not used directly on internal workstations.
CompTIA highlights APIPA as a key troubleshooting indicator of DHCP failure or network connectivity
issues, making it the correct answer.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – IP Addressing, DHCP, and
Troubleshooting
Question: 311
A technician is building a home desktop computer. The technician wants to prioritize cable
management when considering the type of power supply. Which of the following power supply types
should the technician consider?
- Back-up
- Modular
- Standard
- Redundant
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A modular power supply is the best choice when cable management is a priority. According to
CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) power supply objectives, modular PSUs allow technicians to connect
only the cables that are needed for the system’s components, reducing clutter inside the case.
This improves airflow, simplifies troubleshooting, and creates a cleaner internal layout, which is
especially beneficial in home-built desktop systems. Semi-modular and fully modular power supplies
offer varying degrees of flexibility, but all modular designs reduce unused cables compared to
standard power supplies.
A standard (non-modular) power supply has all cables permanently attached, often resulting in
excess unused cables that obstruct airflow. A backup power supply refers to an uninterruptible
power supply (UPS), which provides battery backup but does not improve internal cable
management. A redundant power supply is typically found in enterprise servers and includes
multiple PSUs for fault tolerance, not cable management.
CompTIA emphasizes modular power supplies as a best practice for clean builds and efficient system
design, making this the correct answer.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Power Supplies, Form Factors, and
Cable Management
Question: 312
An administrator is investigating a misuse of printer resources. The administrator suspects an
employee. Which of the following will help the administrator verify the source of misuse?
- Secure printing
- Print counter
- Audit logs
- User authentication
Answer: C
Explanation:
To verify the source of printer misuse, the administrator needs detailed records showing who
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performed specific actions and when. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printer management
and security objectives, audit logs provide a historical record of printer activity, including user IDs,
timestamps, document names, and print volumes. These logs allow administrators to trace printer
usage back to a specific user or device, making them the most effective tool for investigating misuse.
Secure printing requires users to authenticate at the printer before jobs are released, which helps
prevent unauthorized access but does not provide historical evidence of past misuse. A print counter
tracks the total number of pages printed but does not identify individual users or specific print jobs.
User authentication ensures that only authorized users can access the printer, but by itself it does not
provide detailed usage tracking unless combined with logging.
CompTIA emphasizes audit logging as a critical component of accountability and security across
systems, including printers. When investigating policy violations or misuse, audit logs are the primary
source of verifiable evidence.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Printer Security, Monitoring, and
Management
Question: 313
The computers and IP phones at an office experience degraded performance during the day. The
issue does not occur before the start of business. Which of the following will resolve the issue?
- Changing the switches to ones with higher capacity
- Using VLANs to segregate data and voice traffic
- Adding RAM to the PCs and additional VoIP lines
- Updating the firmware on the switches
Answer: B
Explanation:
Degraded performance that occurs only during business hours strongly suggests network congestion
caused by simultaneous data and voice traffic. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking
objectives, combining voice (VoIP) and data traffic on the same network without proper
segmentation can lead to latency, jitter, and packet loss, especially during peak usage periods.
Implementing VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) allows administrators to logically separate voice
and data traffic, enabling better traffic management and prioritization. VLANs also support Quality of
Service (QoS) policies that ensure time-sensitive voice traffic is prioritized over standard data traffic,
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improving call quality and overall performance.
Replacing switches with higher-capacity models is costly and unnecessary if proper traffic
segmentation has not yet been implemented. Adding RAM to PCs or VoIP lines does not address
network-level congestion. Firmware updates may improve stability but will not resolve sustained
performance degradation caused by traffic contention.
CompTIA highlights VLAN implementation as a best practice for environments that use IP phones,
especially when performance issues occur during high utilization periods.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – VLANs, VoIP, and Network
Performance
Question: 314
Which of the following is the best to use to stream real-time video from a network camera?
- UDP
- TCP
- FTP
- RDP
Answer: A
Explanation:
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is the preferred protocol for real-time video streaming, such as feeds
from network cameras. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking protocols objectives,
UDP prioritizes speed and low latency over guaranteed delivery, making it ideal for time-sensitive
applications.
Real-time video streaming can tolerate occasional packet loss, but it cannot tolerate delays caused by
retransmissions. UDP does not perform error checking or packet retransmission, which reduces
overhead and ensures smooth, continuous playback. This is critical for live video feeds where
delayed packets are useless.
TCP, while reliable, introduces latency due to acknowledgments and retransmissions, making it
unsuitable for real-time streaming. FTP is a file transfer protocol and does not support live streaming.
RDP is used for remote desktop access and is not designed for transmitting continuous real-time
video streams from cameras.
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CompTIA emphasizes understanding protocol selection based on application requirements,
particularly distinguishing between reliability and performance needs. For live video, UDP is the
optimal choice.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Network Protocols and Use Cases
Question: 315
Which of the following is an example of VDI?
- Streaming a GUI to thin clients from a server
- Provisioning a sandbox as a test environment
- Providing high-performance workstations with a local OS
- Launching a virtual machine server on a hypervisor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) delivers a desktop operating system hosted on a centralized
server and streams the graphical user interface (GUI) to endpoint devices such as thin clients, zero
clients, or standard PCs. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization objectives, VDI
allows users to access their desktop environments remotely while all processing and data remain on
the server.
Option A accurately describes this model: a GUI streamed from a server to thin clients. This approach
improves centralized management, enhances security, and simplifies endpoint hardware
requirements.
Provisioning a sandbox is an example of test or development virtualization, not desktop
virtualization. High-performance workstations with a local OS are physical desktops, not VDI.
Launching a virtual machine server on a hypervisor describes server virtualization, not desktop
delivery.
CompTIA highlights VDI as a common enterprise solution that separates the desktop environment
from the physical device, enabling flexibility, scalability, and centralized control.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Virtualization, VDI, and Cloud
Concepts
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Question: 316
A user connects a PC to a projector and configures the projector to use HDMI. However, when the
user tries to use the projector, the projector shows a black screen with the message “HDMI2 no
signal found.” The user reports that the projector worked properly during a previous meeting. Which
of the following should the user do to fix the issue?
- Replace the bulb.
- Swap the video cable.
- Change the input source.
- Update the video drivers.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The error message “HDMI2 no signal found” indicates that the projector is set to an input source that
is not currently receiving a video signal. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) display and
troubleshooting objectives, input source selection is one of the first items to verify when an external
display shows a black screen but powers on correctly.
Many projectors have multiple HDMI ports (HDMI1, HDMI2, etc.). If the PC is connected to a different
HDMI port than the one currently selected, the projector will display a “no signal” message even
though the cable and device are functioning properly. Changing the input source to match the
connected HDMI port resolves the issue quickly.
Replacing the bulb would not fix a “no signal” message, as the projector is clearly powered on and
displaying text. Swapping the video cable is a valid troubleshooting step, but the explicit HDMI2
message points to an incorrect input selection. Updating video drivers is unnecessary when the
device worked previously and the issue is isolated to input detection.
CompTIA emphasizes verifying correct input selection as a primary step when troubleshooting
external display issues.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Display Devices and Troubleshooting
Question: 317
A technician must upgrade a computer system to improve its overall processing performance. Which
of the following should the technician focus on to ensure maximum system performance?
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- Integrated GPU
- Power connectors
- Voltage regulator module
- Clock frequency
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clock frequency is one of the most significant factors influencing a computer system’s processing
performance. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) CPU and performance objectives, clock
speed—measured in gigahertz (GHz)—determines how many instruction cycles a processor can
perform per second.
Higher clock frequencies generally result in faster execution of instructions, leading to improved
performance in both single-threaded and multi-threaded workloads. While modern CPUs also rely
on core count, cache size, and architecture efficiency, clock frequency remains a primary metric for
evaluating raw processing speed.
An integrated GPU affects graphics performance rather than overall CPU processing capability. Power
connectors ensure proper electrical delivery but do not directly improve processing performance.
The voltage regulator module (VRM) stabilizes and regulates power supplied to the CPU but does not
itself increase processing speed.
CompTIA expects candidates to recognize clock frequency as a key determinant of CPU performance
when upgrading or comparing processors.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – CPU Architecture and Performance
Question: 318
A user’s computer can connect to internal network resources but cannot access websites on the
internet. Other users on the same network do not have this issue. Which of the following should a
technician do first to troubleshoot the issue?
- Verify the computer’s DNS settings.
- Replace the network cable.
- Restart the DHCP server.
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- Adjust the firewall rules on the router.
Answer: A
Explanation:
If a computer can access internal network resources but cannot reach external websites, the most
likely issue is a DNS configuration problem. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking
troubleshooting methodology, DNS should be one of the first items checked when internet access
fails but local connectivity remains intact.
DNS translates human-readable domain names into IP addresses. If DNS settings are incorrect,
missing, or pointing to an invalid server, the computer will be unable to resolve website names even
though it has network connectivity. Since other users on the same network can access the internet,
the issue is isolated to the individual workstation.
Replacing the network cable is unnecessary because internal connectivity is already working.
Restarting the DHCP server would impact all users, not just one. Adjusting firewall rules on the router
would affect the entire network rather than a single computer.
CompTIA emphasizes starting with least disruptive and most likely causes when troubleshooting.
Verifying DNS settings aligns with this best-practice approach.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Network Troubleshooting and DNS
Question: 319
A user reports issues controlling the cursor on a company-owned laptop. The technician inspects the
laptop and discovers a bulge under the trackpad. Which of the following components should the
technician replace first?
- Motherboard
- Heat sink
- Battery
- Trackpad
Answer: C
Explanation:
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A bulge under the trackpad on a laptop is a strong and well-known indicator of a swollen lithium-ion
battery. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device hardware and troubleshooting
objectives, laptop batteries are often located directly beneath the palm rest or trackpad area. When
a lithium-ion battery begins to fail, it can swell due to internal chemical reactions, causing physical
deformation of nearby components.
This swelling can interfere with the normal operation of the trackpad, leading to cursor control
issues, clicking problems, or unresponsive behavior. More importantly, a swollen battery presents a
serious safety risk, including the potential for overheating, leakage, or fire. For this reason, CompTIA
emphasizes that battery replacement should be the first corrective action when physical swelling is
observed.
Replacing the trackpad would not resolve the underlying pressure caused by the expanding battery.
The motherboard and heat sink are unrelated to the physical bulge and cursor control symptoms
described. Proper troubleshooting requires identifying and addressing the root cause, not the
secondary symptom.
CompTIA best practices also stress safe handling and immediate replacement of damaged or swollen
batteries to prevent further hardware damage or personal injury.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Laptop Batteries, Mobile Device
Troubleshooting, and Hardware Safety
Question: 320
A small company recently added VoIP through its ISP. Users report intermittent call quality issues
during peak hours. Which of the following steps should the IT administrator take to solve the issue?
- Configure the VLAN to split services.
- Route calls through a gigabit port.
- Install a shielded network cable.
- Increase the VoIP bit rate.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Intermittent VoIP call quality issues that occur during peak hours are a classic symptom of network
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congestion caused by voice and data traffic competing for the same network resources. According to
CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking and VoIP objectives, one of the most effective solutions is to
configure VLANs to separate voice and data traffic.
By placing VoIP devices on a dedicated voice VLAN, the network can apply Quality of Service (QoS)
policies that prioritize voice packets over standard data traffic. This reduces latency, jitter, and packet
loss, which are the primary causes of poor call quality. VLAN separation ensures that even during
heavy data usage, voice traffic remains clear and reliable.
Routing calls through a gigabit port does not address traffic prioritization and is unlikely to resolve
congestion during peak usage. Installing shielded network cables only helps in environments with
excessive electromagnetic interference, which would affect performance consistently—not
intermittently. Increasing the VoIP bit rate would actually worsen congestion by consuming more
bandwidth.
CompTIA emphasizes VLAN implementation and QoS as best practices for VoIP deployments,
especially when call quality degrades under high network utilization.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – VoIP, VLANs, and Network
Performance
Question: 321
A local bank is designing its new infrastructure blueprint. Which of the following RAID types offers
double parity?
- RAID 0
- RAID 1
- RAID 5
- RAID 6
Answer: D
Explanation:
RAID 6 is the RAID level that provides double parity, allowing the system to tolerate the failure of two
disks simultaneously without data loss. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) storage and RAID
objectives, RAID 6 improves fault tolerance by storing two independent parity blocks across all disks
in the array.
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RAID 0 provides no parity or redundancy and focuses only on performance through striping. RAID 1
uses mirroring, duplicating data across two drives but does not use parity. RAID 5 uses single parity,
allowing recovery from only one failed drive.
For environments such as a local bank, where data integrity and availability are critical, RAID 6 is
commonly preferred due to its higher fault tolerance compared to RAID 5. Although RAID 6 has
slightly lower write performance due to the additional parity calculation, the increased resilience
makes it suitable for mission-critical systems.
CompTIA highlights RAID 6 as a common enterprise solution when both redundancy and reliability
are priorities.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – RAID Levels and Storage
Technologies
Question: 322
A user’s laptop shuts down unexpectedly while connected to a virtual meeting. The user turns on the
device several times, but it shuts down again after connecting to the meeting for a few minutes.
Which of the following should a technician do first to troubleshoot this issue?
- Run the application in safe mode.
- Check the BIOS for the CPU temperature.
- Connect to the meeting with a different application.
- Verify that the battery is completely charged.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Unexpected system shutdowns that occur after a few minutes of activity—especially during
resource-intensive tasks such as virtual meetings—are a strong indicator of overheating. According
to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) laptop and hardware troubleshooting objectives, thermal issues
commonly cause systems to power off automatically to prevent hardware damage.
Virtual meeting applications place sustained load on the CPU and GPU, increasing heat output. If the
cooling system is malfunctioning (dust buildup, failed fan, dried thermal paste), the CPU temperature
can rise rapidly and trigger a thermal shutdown. Checking the CPU temperature in the BIOS or UEFI is
an appropriate first step to confirm whether overheating is occurring.
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Running the application in safe mode or switching applications does not address the root hardware
issue. Verifying the battery charge is unlikely to resolve repeated shutdowns that occur only after
several minutes of operation.
CompTIA emphasizes identifying environmental and thermal causes early in the troubleshooting
process, especially when symptoms are repeatable and load-dependent.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Laptop Cooling, Thermal
Management, and Troubleshooting
Question: 323
Two workstations are connected to a LAN that does not have internet access. A user reports that they
are unable to access a network service after a power outage. The web page warns the user that the
site is insecure. Which of the following will most likely resolve the certificate error? (Select two)
- Renewing the SSL certificate
- Setting the system date and time in the BIOS
- Replacing the CMOS battery
- Adjusting the browser security settings
- Opening the HTTPS port on the workstation’s firewall
- Scanning the LAN for unauthorized devices
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Certificate security warnings commonly occur when a system cannot properly validate the validity
period of an SSL/TLS certificate. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking and security
fundamentals, two of the most common causes of certificate errors are expired certificates and
incorrect system date and time.
After a power outage, systems without internet access cannot automatically synchronize time with
an NTP server. If the system clock resets or becomes inaccurate, the browser may interpret a valid
certificate as expired or not yet valid, triggering an “insecure site” warning. Setting the correct
system date and time in the BIOS immediately resolves this mismatch and is a primary
troubleshooting step.
Additionally, renewing the SSL certificate resolves errors if the certificate has legitimately expired or
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was invalid at the time of access. This is especially relevant for internal network services using selfsigned or internally managed certificates.
Replacing the CMOS battery can prevent future time resets but does not immediately correct the
certificate error. Adjusting browser security settings is unsafe and not recommended. Firewall port
configuration and network scanning are unrelated to certificate validation.
CompTIA emphasizes validating time/date accuracy and certificate status as core steps when
resolving certificate-related security warnings.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Certificates, HTTPS, System Time,
and Network Security
Question: 324
Which of the following is used to install a network device when electrical outlets are unavailable?
- WWAN
- ONT
- NFC
- PoE
Answer: D
Explanation:
Power over Ethernet (PoE) is specifically designed to power network devices without requiring a
separate electrical outlet. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking hardware objectives,
PoE allows both data and electrical power to be delivered over a single Ethernet cable from a PoEcapable switch or injector to the connected device.
PoE is commonly used for devices such as wireless access points, IP cameras, VoIP phones, and
access control systems, especially in locations where installing electrical outlets is difficult,
expensive, or impractical. This makes PoE an ideal solution for flexible and scalable network
deployments.
WWAN (Wireless Wide Area Network) provides cellular-based network connectivity but does not
supply power to devices. An ONT (Optical Network Terminal) converts fiber signals to Ethernet and
requires its own power source. NFC (Near Field Communication) is a short-range wireless technology
used for authentication and data exchange, not for powering network devices.
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CompTIA highlights PoE as a key networking technology that simplifies installations by reducing
cabling requirements and eliminating the need for local power outlets.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Networking Hardware, PoE
Standards, and Device Installation
Question: 325
Which of the following cables should be installed if nearby electromagnetic interference is a
possibility?
- STP
- UTP
- Thunderbolt
- USB
Answer: A
Explanation:
Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cabling is specifically designed to protect data transmissions from
electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). According to CompTIA
Core 1 (220-1201) networking cabling objectives, STP cables include an additional shielding layer—
either around individual wire pairs or the entire cable—that reduces the impact of external electrical
noise.
In environments where network cables are installed near heavy machinery, fluorescent lighting,
power cables, or radio transmitters, EMI can cause data corruption, retransmissions, and reduced
network performance. STP helps maintain signal integrity in these high-interference environments.
Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) relies only on wire twisting to reduce interference and is more
susceptible to EMI compared to STP. Thunderbolt and USB are peripheral interface standards, not
structured network cabling solutions, and they are not intended for long-distance network
installations.
CompTIA emphasizes selecting the appropriate cabling type based on environmental factors,
particularly when interference is a concern. For locations with potential EMI, STP is the
recommended choice.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Network Cabling, EMI, and
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Installation Best Practices
Question: 326
An engineer must implement a solution to facilitate and maintain an organization’s legacy
application until it is retired. The application is currently hosted on three physical servers. Which of
the following is the most suitable concept for this purpose?
- SAN
- FaaS
- Virtualization
- Configuration management platform
Answer: C
Explanation:
Virtualization is the most suitable solution for maintaining a legacy application that is currently
running on multiple physical servers. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization
concepts, virtualization allows physical servers to be consolidated into virtual machines (VMs) that
run on a single or reduced number of physical hosts while preserving the original operating systems
and application environments.
Legacy applications often rely on older operating systems, specific hardware configurations, or
outdated dependencies. Virtualization enables the organization to encapsulate the legacy
environment, reducing hardware dependency and simplifying maintenance until the application can
be fully retired. This approach also lowers power consumption, hardware costs, and physical space
requirements while improving manageability and backup options.
A SAN (Storage Area Network) provides shared storage but does not address application hosting or
server consolidation. FaaS (Function as a Service) is a cloud-native, event-driven computing model
that requires application redesign and is unsuitable for legacy systems. A configuration management
platform is used to manage and automate system configurations but does not replace physical
servers or host applications.
CompTIA highlights virtualization as a key strategy for supporting legacy systems, improving
flexibility, and extending the lifespan of applications during transition periods.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Virtualization Concepts, Server
Consolidation, and Legacy System Support
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Question: 327
Which of the following connectors will uplink a new ISP cable modem to its wall jack?
- F-type
- LC
- RJ45
- Lightning
Answer: A
Explanation:
A cable modem connects to an ISP’s wall jack using a coaxial cable, and the standard connector used
for coaxial connections is the F-type connector. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking
hardware and cabling objectives, F-type connectors are specifically designed for coaxial cabling used
in cable television and cable internet (DOCSIS) installations. These connectors screw onto the coaxial
wall outlet and the cable modem, ensuring a secure physical connection and proper signal
transmission.
An LC connector is a fiber-optic connector commonly used with single-mode or multimode fiber
cables and is not associated with cable modems. An RJ45 connector is used for Ethernet networking
and is typically used to connect the cable modem to a router or computer, not to the wall jack.
Lightning is a proprietary Apple connector used for charging and data transfer on mobile devices and
has no role in network uplinks.
CompTIA expects candidates to clearly distinguish between different cable types and connectors
based on the service being installed. When the scenario involves a cable modem and ISP wall jack,
the correct and standard connector is the F-type.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Network Cabling, Coaxial
Connectors, and ISP Installations
Question: 328
A user is trying to print diagrams on 11in × 17in (28cm × 43cm) paper. The correct paper is in the
printer, but the printer prompts the user to insert paper. A technician assisting the user successfully
prints the diagram to a different printer that is the same model. Which of the following is the most
likely cause of this issue on the user’s printer?
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- Tray settings
- Incorrect driver
- Connectivity issues
- Insufficient permissions
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most likely cause of this issue is incorrect tray settings on the user’s printer. According to
CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printer configuration and troubleshooting concepts, printers rely on tray
configuration settings to determine the paper size and paper type loaded in each tray. If the tray is
not configured for 11 × 17 (Tabloid/Ledger) paper, the printer will assume the required paper is
unavailable—even if the paper is physically present.
When a print job specifies a paper size that does not match the tray’s configured settings, the printer
commonly displays a message prompting the user to insert the correct paper. The fact that the same
document prints successfully on another printer of the same model confirms that the driver,
permissions, and connectivity are functioning correctly, further isolating the issue to the local
printer’s tray configuration.
An incorrect driver would cause consistent problems across printers, not just one. Connectivity issues
would prevent communication with the printer entirely, and insufficient permissions would generate
access or authorization errors rather than a paper prompt.
CompTIA emphasizes verifying tray assignments and paper size configuration as a primary
troubleshooting step when printers incorrectly request paper that is already loaded.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Printer Configuration, Paper
Handling, and Troubleshooting
Question: 329
A healthcare facility is printing government documents on preprinted forms. The output has shifted
downward on the paper, and the printed data is not aligned with the blank spaces on the forms.
Which of the following should a technician do first?
- Verify that the correct paper type is loaded into the tray.
- Make sure that PostScript drivers are being used.
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- Check the orientation settings of the printer.
- Ensure that the pickup rollers are firmly gripping the paper.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When printing on preprinted forms, correct alignment is critical because the printed text must line
up precisely with predefined fields on the paper. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printer
configuration and troubleshooting objectives, incorrect orientation settings (portrait vs. landscape,
or rotated output) are a common cause of print content shifting vertically or horizontally on the
page.
If the printer or print driver orientation does not match the layout expected by the form, the output
may appear shifted downward or misaligned, even though the correct paper is loaded. Verifying and
correcting the orientation setting is a quick, non-invasive first step that often resolves alignment
issues without requiring hardware changes.
Verifying the paper type is important, but incorrect paper type usually affects print quality (such as
smudging or feeding issues), not precise alignment. PostScript drivers are typically used for complex
graphics and publishing but are not the first step for alignment problems. Pickup rollers that fail to
grip paper properly usually cause jams or skewing, not consistent downward shifts.
CompTIA emphasizes checking print layout and orientation settings first when dealing with
alignment problems on specialized or preprinted documents.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Printer Configuration, Orientation
Settings, and Troubleshooting
Question: 330
A technician receives several complaints from the same office about VoIP calls sounding broken up,
being difficult to hear, and having lagging audio. The technician arrives on-site and runs an internet
speed test on several wired and wireless computers. Internet speed seems normal throughout the
office. Which of the following should the technician do to fix the call issues?
- Enable QoS in the router.
- Configure PoE on the switch.
- Change the encryption from WPA3 to WPA2.
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- Turn on MAC address filtering.
Answer: A
Explanation:
VoIP traffic is highly sensitive to latency, jitter, and packet loss, even when overall internet bandwidth
appears sufficient. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking and VoIP troubleshooting
objectives, normal speed test results do not guarantee good VoIP performance because speed tests
measure throughput, not real-time traffic prioritization.
In this scenario, users experience choppy audio and lag, which are classic symptoms of voice packets
competing with regular data traffic during periods of network utilization. Enabling Quality of Service
(QoS) on the router allows the network to prioritize VoIP traffic over less time-sensitive data such as
web browsing, file downloads, or streaming. This ensures voice packets are transmitted with minimal
delay, improving call clarity and reliability.
Configuring PoE only supplies power to VoIP phones and does not affect call quality. Changing
wireless encryption standards does not resolve latency or prioritization issues. MAC address filtering
is a security feature and has no impact on VoIP performance.
CompTIA emphasizes QoS as a key solution for resolving VoIP performance issues in environments
where bandwidth exists but voice traffic is not properly prioritized.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – VoIP Technologies, QoS, and
Network Performance
Question: 331
A client is unable to unlock their smartphone. When they try to enter their code, the input is
unsuccessful. Which of the following components has most likely failed?
- Charging port
- Touch screen
- OLED
- Biometric scanner
Answer: B
Explanation:
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The most likely failed component in this scenario is the touch screen. According to CompTIA Core 1
(220-1201) mobile device hardware and troubleshooting objectives, smartphones rely on the
digitizer (touch screen layer) to detect user input such as taps, swipes, and on-screen keyboard
presses. If the device powers on and displays the lock screen but does not register code input, this
strongly indicates a failure in the touch input functionality.
A failed charging port would prevent the device from charging but would not affect the ability to
enter a passcode if the device is powered on. An OLED failure would result in display issues such as a
blank screen, flickering, discoloration, or no image at all—none of which are described in this
scenario. A biometric scanner (fingerprint or facial recognition) failure would only impact biometric
authentication methods; users would still be able to unlock the phone using a PIN or passcode.
CompTIA emphasizes distinguishing between display output issues and input issues when
troubleshooting mobile devices. Since the problem specifically involves unsuccessful code entry
despite the phone being operational, the root cause is the touch screen.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Mobile Device Components,
Touchscreens, and Troubleshooting
Question: 332
A technician connects a network printer to a SOHO router. The technician configures several
workstations to send print jobs to the printer’s network address. After several days, users report that
they are no longer able to use the printer. Which of the following should the technician use to
resolve the issue and prevent it from reoccurring?
- Network gateway
- USB cable
- APIPA
- Static IP
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most effective solution to resolve this issue and prevent it from happening again is to assign the
printer a static IP address. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking and printer
configuration objectives, network printers should use static IP addresses to ensure consistent
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accessibility by client devices.
In this scenario, the printer was initially reachable using its assigned network address, but after
several days it became unavailable. This commonly occurs when the printer is configured to receive
its IP address via DHCP. When the DHCP lease expires or the printer is rebooted, the router may
assign a different IP address, causing all workstations configured with the old address to lose
connectivity.
By configuring a static IP address (or DHCP reservation), the printer’s IP address remains constant,
ensuring that all workstations can reliably send print jobs without interruption.
A network gateway is used to route traffic between networks and does not address printer
addressing issues. A USB cable would eliminate network printing entirely and is not appropriate for a
SOHO network environment. APIPA addresses indicate a DHCP failure and would worsen connectivity
rather than fix it.
CompTIA strongly emphasizes using static IP addressing for shared network devices such as printers
to ensure stability and prevent recurring access problems.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Network Printing, DHCP, and IP
Addressing
Question: 333
A technician connects a WISP modem to a portable router in order to provide an Ethernet connection
to a laptop. Which of the following network types has the technician configured?
- WAN
- SAN
- PAN
- MAN
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is WAN (Wide Area Network). According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201)
networking fundamentals, a WAN is used to connect devices or networks over large geographic
areas, typically through an Internet Service Provider (ISP). A WISP (Wireless Internet Service
Provider) delivers internet connectivity wirelessly over long distances, which clearly falls under WAN
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technology.
In this scenario, the technician connects a WISP modem to a portable router to provide Ethernet
connectivity to a laptop. The WISP modem represents the WAN link, as it connects the local device to
an external network (the internet) managed by the service provider. The portable router then
distributes that WAN connection locally via Ethernet.
A SAN (Storage Area Network) is used for high-speed storage communication between servers and
storage devices and is unrelated to internet connectivity. A PAN (Personal Area Network) is limited to
very short-range connections, such as Bluetooth between personal devices. A MAN (Metropolitan
Area Network) covers a city or campus-scale area and is not applicable to a single modem-to-router
setup.
CompTIA emphasizes identifying network types based on scope and provider involvement. Since a
WISP connection extends beyond the local environment and connects to an ISP, it is classified as a
WAN.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Network Types, WAN Technologies,
and ISP Connectivity
Question: 334
Which of the following should a technician use in DNS to map a device to an IPv6 address?
- A
- CNAME
- AAAA
- MX
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct DNS record used to map a device to an IPv6 address is the AAAA record. According to
CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking fundamentals, DNS uses different record types to associate
domain names with specific resources, and each record type serves a distinct purpose.
An AAAA (Quad-A) record maps a fully qualified domain name (FQDN) to an IPv6 address, which is a
128-bit address written in hexadecimal format. As IPv6 adoption increases to address IPv4
exhaustion, CompTIA expects technicians to understand how DNS supports both addressing
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schemes.
An A record maps a hostname to an IPv4 address only and cannot be used for IPv6. A CNAME record
creates an alias that points one domain name to another domain name, not directly to an IP address.
An MX record is used for mail server routing and email delivery, not for host address resolution.
CompTIA emphasizes knowing DNS record types and their specific use cases, especially
distinguishing between A vs. AAAA records when working with IPv4 and IPv6 networks. When the
requirement is explicitly to map a device to an IPv6 address, the AAAA record is the correct and only
valid choice.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – DNS Record Types, IPv6 Addressing,
and Network Name Resolution
Question: 335
Which of the following best describes a Type 2 hypervisor?
- It works as a firewall to control network traffic.
- It interacts with the underlying hardware.
- It runs on a host operating system.
- It brings higher CPU capabilities to virtual machines.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Type 2 hypervisor is defined as a hypervisor that runs on top of a host operating system, rather
than directly on the system’s hardware. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization
concepts, Type 2 hypervisors are also referred to as hosted hypervisors and are commonly used in
desktop, lab, and testing environments.
In this model, the host operating system (such as Windows, macOS, or Linux) is installed first, and the
hypervisor runs as an application within that OS. The hypervisor then manages virtual machines by
requesting hardware resources through the host OS. Examples of Type 2 hypervisors include
VirtualBox, VMware Workstation, and Parallels Desktop.
Option B describes a Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor, which runs directly on the hardware without a
host OS. Type 1 hypervisors are typically used in enterprise environments and offer higher
performance and isolation. Option A is unrelated to virtualization, as firewall functionality controls
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network traffic. Option D is incorrect because hypervisors do not inherently increase CPU
capabilities; they allocate existing resources.
CompTIA emphasizes understanding the distinction between Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors,
particularly that Type 2 hypervisors rely on a host operating system, making option C the correct
answer.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Virtualization Concepts, Hypervisor
Types, and Cloud Computing
Question: 336
Which of the following statements is true when comparing DDR3 RAM and DDR4 RAM?
- DDR4 offers faster data transfer rates compared to DDR3.
- DDR3 is capable of achieving higher bandwidth than DDR4.
- DDR4 operates at a higher voltage than DDR3.
- DDR3 is better suited for low-power environments than DDR4.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct statement when comparing DDR3 and DDR4 memory technologies is that DDR4 offers
faster data transfer rates compared to DDR3. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) memory and
hardware objectives, DDR4 was designed as the successor to DDR3 and provides several
performance and efficiency improvements.
DDR3 memory typically operates at data transfer rates ranging from 800 MT/s to 2133 MT/s, while
DDR4 starts at 2133 MT/s and can scale significantly higher depending on the module and platform.
This increased transfer rate allows DDR4 to handle more data per second, improving overall system
performance, especially in modern systems and multitasking environments.
Option B is incorrect because DDR4 achieves higher bandwidth, not DDR3. Option C is incorrect
because DDR4 operates at a lower voltage (typically 1.2V) compared to DDR3 (typically 1.5V), making
DDR4 more power efficient. Option D is also incorrect because DDR4 is better suited for low-power
environments due to its reduced voltage requirements.
CompTIA emphasizes understanding RAM generations, including differences in speed, bandwidth,
and power consumption, making DDR4’s higher data transfer rates a key distinguishing factor.
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Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – RAM Technologies, DDR Standards,
and Performance Characteristics
Question: 337
A company wants to enable access to corporate email on smartphones. Employees will choose from
a list of supported devices but must install software that separates corporate and personal data.
Which of the following should the company implement to achieve this goal?
- Encryption
- Network access control
- Mobile device management
- Endpoint protection
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct solution for this scenario is Mobile Device Management (MDM). According to CompTIA
Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device security and management objectives, MDM is specifically designed
to manage, secure, and enforce policies on mobile devices used to access corporate resources.
MDM solutions allow organizations to require employees to install management software on their
smartphones before accessing corporate email. One of the key features of MDM is data separation,
often referred to as containerization, which keeps corporate data isolated from personal data on the
same device. This ensures that company information remains secure while still allowing employees
to use their devices for personal purposes.
Encryption alone protects data but does not enforce separation or centralized control. Network
access control (NAC) restricts which devices can connect to a network but does not manage data on
the device itself. Endpoint protection focuses on malware prevention and threat detection, not policy
enforcement or data separation.
CompTIA emphasizes MDM as the primary solution for BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) and corporate
mobile access scenarios, making it the most suitable and complete answer for this requirement.
Reference:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Mobile Device Management (MDM),
BYOD Policies, and Mobile Security
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Question: 338
Which of the following is used to verify the functionality of an Ethernet NIC?
- Toner probe
- Loopback plug
- Wi-Fi analyzer
- Punchdown tool
Answer: B
Explanation:
A loopback plug is specifically designed to test whether a network interface card (NIC) can
successfully transmit and receive signals at the physical/data-link level. For an Ethernet NIC, the
loopback plug connects the transmit (TX) pins back to the receive (RX) pins on the NIC’s port (or
through an adapter), creating a closed circuit. When the NIC sends data, it should immediately “see”
that data returned, confirming the NIC’s port electronics and basic send/receive functionality are
working. This is a direct, controlled test that helps isolate the problem: if the NIC fails the loopback
test, the issue is likely the NIC/port/driver configuration rather than the cabling or network
infrastructure.
The other tools don’t validate NIC function in this way: a toner probe traces and identifies cables, a
Wi-Fi analyzer evaluates wireless networks (not wired Ethernet NICs), and a punchdown tool
terminates wires into patch panels or keystone jacks. Therefore, the best CompTIA A+ answer for
verifying an Ethernet NIC’s functionality is a loopback plug.
Question: 339
Which of the following protocol ports is used for secure remote access to a network device?
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 25
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell), which is the standard protocol for secure remote administration
of network devices such as switches, routers, firewalls, and Linux-based systems. CompTIA A+ Core 1
emphasizes knowing common ports and selecting secure management methods. SSH provides
encrypted communication for both authentication and the session data, protecting usernames,
passwords, and command output from being intercepted by packet sniffers. This makes it the
preferred choice over older remote access methods.
In contrast, port 23 is Telnet, which is also used for remote terminal access but sends traffic in
cleartext, making it insecure and generally discouraged in modern environments. Port 21 is FTP
control traffic, used for file transfers and typically not secure unless paired with FTPS or replaced by
SFTP (which actually runs over SSH on port 22). Port 25 is SMTP, used for sending email between mail
servers and is unrelated to remote device management. Therefore, for secure remote access to a
network device, SSH on port 22 is the correct answer.
Question: 340
A user needs cellular internet connectivity for their laptop without using an external device. Which
of the following technologies can the user use on their laptop to achieve this connection?
- Bluetooth
- Hotspot
- SIM card
- NFC
Answer: C
Explanation:
A SIM card enables a laptop to connect directly to a cellular network when the laptop includes an
integrated mobile broadband (cellular) modem (often referred to as LTE/5G capable). In this setup,
the SIM provides subscriber identity and authentication details required by the carrier, allowing the
laptop to register on the cellular network and access mobile data without relying on separate
tethering devices. This aligns with CompTIA A+ Core 1 coverage of mobile and wireless connectivity
options, including cellular data capabilities and the components required to use them.
The other options do not meet the requirement “without using an external device” for cellular
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connectivity. A hotspot typically means using a phone or dedicated hotspot device to share its
cellular connection over Wi-Fi, which relies on an external device. Bluetooth can be used for
tethering, but it still requires a phone providing the cellular connection. NFC is used for short-range
communication like tap-to-pair or payments and does not provide cellular internet access. Therefore,
a SIM card (with an internal cellular modem) is the correct choice.
Question: 341
A technician recently replaced a user’s laptop screen. Since then, the user has had trouble connecting
to wireless networks. Which of the following should the technician do?
- Verify that wireless technologies are compatible with the updated hardware.
- Reinstall the wireless drivers after the OS is reloaded.
- Reconnect the antenna to the system board.
- Reset the network services.
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a laptop screen is replaced, the technician typically removes the display bezel and may
disconnect cables routed through the hinge area. The Wi-Fi antennas in most laptops are mounted
inside the display assembly (often along the top edges of the screen) and their thin coax antenna
leads run through the hinges to the wireless adapter connection points on the system board or
directly onto the Wi-Fi card (MAIN/AUX terminals). If one or both antenna leads are left unplugged,
pinched, or poorly seated during reassembly, the laptop will still detect the Wi-Fi adapter, but
wireless performance will be severely degraded—weak signal strength, intermittent connections,
inability to see networks reliably, or frequent dropouts.
This symptom appearing immediately after a screen replacement strongly indicates a physical
antenna connection issue rather than a driver or software problem. Reinstalling drivers or resetting
services would be more appropriate after OS changes or configuration corruption, not after display
hardware work. Compatibility of wireless technologies is unrelated to swapping a screen. Therefore,
the best CompTIA A+ troubleshooting step is to open the unit and reconnect/secure the Wi-Fi
antenna leads to the system board/wireless card.
Question: 342
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A technician builds a workstation. When the technician starts up the workstation, the technician
notices a burning smell. During POST, the workstation shuts down. Which of the following is most
likely the cause of these issues?
- The technician did not properly ground the workstation.
- The technician chose the wrong type of RAM.
- The technician did not connect power to the exhaust fan.
- The technician did not apply thermal paste.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A shutdown during POST combined with a burning smell strongly indicates an overheating condition
occurring almost immediately after power-on. In a newly built workstation, the most common cause
of rapid CPU overheating is improper heatsink installation, especially failing to apply thermal paste
(thermal compound) between the CPU and the heatsink. Thermal paste fills microscopic
imperfections between the two metal surfaces so heat can transfer efficiently into the heatsink.
Without it, the CPU can spike to unsafe temperatures within seconds. Modern systems detect this
and trigger protective thermal shutdown during POST to prevent permanent CPU or motherboard
damage. The burning smell can occur when components near the CPU socket heat excessively or
when protective coatings/dust residues warm quickly due to poor heat dissipation.
The wrong type of RAM (B) would more likely cause no-boot/beep codes rather than a burning smell.
Not properly grounding (A) relates to ESD damage risk, but that typically causes intermittent or dead
hardware symptoms, not immediate thermal shutdown. A disconnected case exhaust fan (C) can
contribute to higher case temperatures, but it’s less likely to cause an immediate POST shutdown
compared to missing thermal paste on the CPU cooler.
Question: 343
An office manager wants to scan a contract that is approximately 300 pages. The office manager is
concerned the process will take a long time because each page must be scanned individually. Which
of the following can the office manager use to increase the speed of scanning?
- Flatbed scanner
- Duplexing
- Automatic document feeder
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- Orientation configuration
Answer: C
Explanation:
An automatic document feeder (ADF) is designed to speed up scanning jobs that involve many pages
by feeding sheets through the scanner automatically, one after another, without requiring the user to
lift the lid and position each page manually. For a 300-page contract, the biggest time loss is the
manual handling of every page on a flatbed. With an ADF-equipped scanner or multifunction printer,
the user can load a stack of pages into the feeder tray and the device will process them continuously,
greatly improving productivity and reducing user effort. This is a common CompTIA A+ Core 1
concept when comparing scanner hardware features and selecting the correct device for highvolume tasks.
A flatbed scanner (A) is typically slower for large documents because it requires manual placement
of each page. Duplexing (B) can be helpful when scanning double-sided documents because it
captures both sides automatically, but it does not address the “each page must be scanned
individually” issue as effectively as an ADF does for high page counts. Orientation configuration (D)
only changes how pages are rotated or aligned in the output file and does not increase scan
throughput. Therefore, an ADF is the best choice to increase scanning speed for a large contract.
Question: 344
Which of the following allows an internal application to be hosted without managing the underlying
OS?
- SaaS
- IaaS
- UCaaS
- PaaS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Platform as a Service (PaaS) is designed to host and run applications while the cloud provider
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manages the underlying infrastructure and operating system. With PaaS, an organization deploys its
internal application code (and often configures runtime settings), but does not handle OS
installation, patching, hardening, or most server maintenance tasks. This aligns with CompTIA A+
Core 1 cloud concepts that compare service models by responsibility: as you move from IaaS to PaaS
to SaaS, the provider manages more of the stack.
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides virtualized compute, storage, and networking, but the
customer still manages the OS, updates, drivers, and the application stack—so it does not meet the
“without managing the underlying OS” requirement. SaaS (Software as a Service) delivers a complete
finished application to users (like email or CRM), which typically doesn’t fit hosting a custom internal
application you develop. UCaaS focuses on communication services (voice, video, messaging) rather
than general application hosting. Therefore, PaaS is the best option for hosting an internal
application without managing the underlying OS.
Question: 345
Which of the following DHCP components allows a device to be assigned the same IP address
anytime it is connected to the network?
- Exclusion
- Reservation
- Lease
- Scope
Answer: B
Explanation:
A DHCP reservation ensures a specific device always receives the same IP address from the DHCP
server whenever it requests an address. The reservation is typically created by associating the
device’s MAC address with a chosen IP address inside the DHCP scope. When that device connects
and performs the DHCP process, the server recognizes the MAC address and offers the reserved IP
instead of assigning the next available dynamic address. This is commonly used for devices that
benefit from consistent addressing (for example, printers, servers, or network appliances) while still
centrally managing addressing through DHCP rather than configuring a manual static IP on the
endpoint.
An exclusion is the opposite idea: it defines a range of IP addresses within a scope that the DHCP
server will not hand out (often because those addresses are used for statically assigned devices). A
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lease is the time period that a dynamically assigned IP address is valid before it must be renewed; it
does not guarantee the same IP every time. A scope is the overall pool/range of IP addresses and
DHCP options (gateway, DNS, etc.) available for a given subnet. Therefore, the component that
guarantees the same IP is a reservation.
Question: 346
Which of the following wireless networking technologies primarily operates in the 5GHz frequency
band?
- Bluetooth
- 802.11ac
- NFC
- RFID
Answer: B
Explanation:
802.11ac is a Wi-Fi standard that primarily operates in the 5GHz band and is known for higher
throughput and improved performance compared with older 2.4GHz-focused standards. In CompTIA
A+ Core 1 networking objectives, you are expected to recognize which IEEE 802.11 standards map to
which frequency bands and the typical trade-offs. The 5GHz band generally provides more available
non-overlapping channels and less interference from common household devices (like microwaves
and many Bluetooth peripherals), which can improve real-world performance. While 5GHz typically
has shorter range and weaker wall penetration than 2.4GHz, it often delivers better speeds in the
same-room or nearby-room scenarios, which aligns with how 802.11ac is commonly deployed.
Bluetooth primarily uses the 2.4GHz ISM band and is designed for short-range personal area
networking rather than high-speed WLAN connections. NFC operates at 13.56MHz for very shortrange tap-based communications. RFID can operate at several bands (low frequency, high frequency,
ultra-high frequency) depending on the use case, but it is not a Wi-Fi networking standard and does
not “primarily” operate at 5GHz. Therefore, the correct answer is 802.11ac.
Question: 347
Which of the following internet connection types is primarily used for high-speed internet access in
rural areas where traditional broadband services are unavailable?
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- Fiber
- Satellite
- DSL
- Cable
Answer: B
Explanation:
Satellite internet is commonly used in rural or remote locations where wired broadband options such
as cable and fiber are not available and where DSL service may be limited by distance from the
provider’s equipment. CompTIA A+ Core 1 emphasizes understanding internet connection types and
where each is typically deployed. Satellite works by using a dish at the customer site to communicate
with a satellite, which then relays traffic to a ground station connected to the internet backbone.
Because it does not depend on local cable plant, telephone central office proximity, or neighborhood
fiber buildouts, it can be deployed in areas with minimal infrastructure.
Fiber (A) provides very high speeds and low latency but requires extensive physical infrastructure
that is often lacking in rural regions. Cable (D) also requires a local cable network buildout and is
usually concentrated in more populated areas. DSL (C) uses existing telephone lines, but
performance and availability depend heavily on distance from the DSL provider’s equipment, making
it unreliable or unavailable in sparsely populated regions. While satellite often involves higher
latency and can be affected by weather, it remains a primary option when traditional broadband
services are not present.
Question: 348
An administrator is configuring a server to host several virtual machines. The administrator
configures the server and is ready to begin provisioning the virtual machines. Which of the following
should the administrator utilize to complete this task?
- Device manager
- Disk management
- Hypervisor
- Virtual LAN
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Answer: C
Explanation:
To provision and run multiple virtual machines on a physical server, the administrator must use a
hypervisor. A hypervisor is the virtualization layer that creates, runs, and manages virtual machines
by abstracting physical hardware resources such as CPU, RAM, storage, and network adapters into
virtual resources presented to each VM. Once the server is configured with the required hardware
support (such as sufficient RAM/CPU capacity and virtualization features enabled in firmware), the
hypervisor is the component that enables VM creation, allocation of resources, virtual disk creation,
and VM lifecycle actions like start, stop, suspend, snapshots, and virtual networking configuration.
Device Manager is used to view and manage hardware devices and drivers on an operating system,
but it is not a VM provisioning tool. Disk Management can partition and format disks, which may
support storage preparation, but it does not create or run VMs. A Virtual LAN is a network
segmentation method at Layer 2 and may be used in VM networking designs, but it does not provide
virtualization itself. Therefore, the correct tool for provisioning virtual machines is the hypervisor.
Question: 349
A device with an IP address of 169.254.34.24 is having trouble accessing internet websites. Which of
the following is most likely causing the issue?
- The static IP address configuration is incorrect.
- The DNS resolution failed.
- The DHCP assignment cannot be obtained.
- The internet is disconnected from the router.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An IP address in the 169.254.x.x range indicates the device has assigned itself an APIPA address
(Automatic Private IP Addressing). This happens when the device is configured to obtain an IP
address automatically but cannot reach a DHCP server to receive a valid IP configuration for the local
network. With an APIPA address, the device can sometimes communicate only with other devices in
the same 169.254.x.x range on the local link, but it typically will not have a correct default gateway or
DNS server settings. Without a valid gateway, the device cannot route traffic to the internet, which
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explains why it cannot access internet websites.
Option C is therefore the most likely cause: the DHCP assignment cannot be obtained due to issues
such as a disconnected network cable, disabled Wi-Fi, DHCP server outage, VLAN misconfiguration,
or a blocked DHCP request/response on the network.
Option B (DNS failure) could prevent name resolution, but it would not by itself cause an APIPA
address. Option A suggests a static configuration problem, yet APIPA usually appears when the
device is set to DHCP, not static. Option D could also break internet access, but it would not
specifically result in a 169.254 address on the client.
Question: 350
Which of the following, when combined, are used to make sure a workstation always has the same IP
address on a network managed with DHCP?
- Creating a new scope
- Enabling network address translation
- Assigning a reservation
- Configuring an automatic private IP address
Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure a workstation always receives the same IP address while still using DHCP, the correct
method is to configure a DHCP reservation. A reservation “combines” two key pieces: the
workstation’s MAC address (hardware address) and a specific IP address within the DHCP scope.
When the workstation requests an address, the DHCP server matches the request to the stored MAC
address and consistently assigns the reserved IP each time the device connects. This provides the
benefits of DHCP (central management, consistent options like gateway/DNS, easier changes) while
giving the workstation a predictable IP, which is often needed for management, monitoring, or
firewall rules.
Creating a new scope is used to define an address pool and options for an entire subnet, but it does
not guarantee one device always gets the same IP. NAT translates private IPs to public IPs and is
unrelated to consistent DHCP assignments for a specific workstation. APIPA automatic private IP
addressing 169.254.x.x occurs when DHCP fails and is not a controlled way to ensure a consistent,
usable network address. Therefore, assigning a reservation is the correct answer.
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Question: 351
Which of the following options offers the best connectivity performance with limited necessary
accessories?
- Hotspot
- Lightning cable
- NFC
- Bluetooth
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Lightning cable provides the best connectivity performance when you want strong, stable
connectivity while keeping required accessories to a minimum. In a mobile troubleshooting and
connectivity context, this refers to USB tethering from an iPhone to another device (such as a
laptop). Wired tethering typically offers higher throughput, lower latency, and better stability than
wireless tethering methods because it avoids Wi-Fi interference, signal loss, and radio congestion. It
also reduces configuration variables—once the cable is connected and tethering is enabled, the
connection is generally consistent and less prone to dropouts than wireless options.
A hotspot can provide good performance, but it relies on Wi-Fi and is more susceptible to
interference and distance, and it also increases battery drain. Bluetooth tethering works with
minimal setup but is usually the slowest option and is best suited for low-bandwidth needs. NFC is
used for short-range pairing or tap-to-connect actions and does not provide an internet data
connection by itself. Therefore, the best option for performance with limited accessories is using a
Lightning cable.
Question: 352
A network printer consistently produces faint printouts. Users report that the issue persists across
different computers and print jobs. Which of the following steps should the technician take first?
- Run a printer calibration process.
- Replace the toner cartridge.
- Reinstall the printer drivers.
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- Adjust the fuser temperature.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Because the printer is a network printer and the issue occurs across multiple computers and different
print jobs, the problem is very likely within the printer hardware/consumables, not the PC drivers or
a single workstation configuration. Faint printing is a classic symptom of low or depleted toner (or an
aging toner cartridge that is no longer distributing toner evenly). In CompTIA A+ troubleshooting
methodology, you start with the most probable and simplest cause before performing deeper
configuration changes or part-level adjustments. Replacing the toner cartridge is a straightforward
first action that often resolves consistent faint output quickly and restores normal print density.
Reinstalling printer drivers would typically be indicated if only one computer had issues or if output
problems changed based on driver settings; that is not the case here. Adjusting fuser temperature is
not a normal first-line step for faint prints and is usually associated with toner not bonding properly
(smearing or flaking), not consistently light output. Calibration can be useful for alignment or
color/quality tuning, but it does not usually fix a persistent, uniform faintness caused by insufficient
toner. Therefore, replace the toner cartridge first.
Question: 353
Which of the following services allows a networked host to automatically assign IP addresses to
devices on a network?
- DNS
- DHCP
- SMTP
- SNMP
Answer: B
Explanation:
DHCP Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is the service that automatically assigns IP addresses and
other essential network settings to devices when they join a network. Instead of manually
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configuring each device with an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers, a DHCP
server provides these settings dynamically from a defined address pool. This reduces configuration
errors, prevents IP conflicts, and makes network administration easier—especially in environments
with many devices or frequent changes. In the DHCP process, a client broadcasts a request, the DHCP
server offers an address, the client requests that offered address, and the server acknowledges it,
granting the device a lease for a specific period. The lease can be renewed, and administrators can
also configure reservations to always give the same IP to a particular device based on its MAC
address.
DNS is used for resolving hostnames to IP addresses, not assigning them. SMTP is for sending email
between mail servers and clients. SNMP is used for monitoring and managing network devices.
Therefore, DHCP is the correct service for automatically assigning IP addresses.
Question: 354
A company wants to optimize its hardware usage by running multiple operating systems concurrently
on a single physical server. Which of the following concepts achieves this goal?
- Host-based virtualization
- Public cloud services
- High-availability clustering
- Software as a service
- Load balancing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Running multiple operating systems at the same time on a single physical server is accomplished
through virtualization. In this scenario, host-based virtualization means a host operating system is
installed on the physical server first, and then virtualization software runs on top of that OS to create
and manage multiple virtual machines. Each virtual machine can run its own guest operating system
independently, while sharing the server’s CPU, RAM, storage, and network resources. This improves
hardware utilization because one physical server can replace multiple separate machines, and
resources can be allocated to VMs based on workload needs.
The other options do not directly describe the concept of running multiple OS instances on the same
physical hardware. Public cloud services describe a delivery model where resources are provided by
a third-party provider, but the underlying concept enabling multiple OS instances is still
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virtualization. High-availability clustering focuses on redundancy and failover across multiple servers.
Software as a service provides a completed application to users, not multiple OS instances. Load
balancing distributes traffic across systems and does not create separate operating systems.
Therefore, the correct choice is host-based virtualization.
Question: 355
A user goes to their office and forgets their laptop charger. After borrowing a charger, the user
notices that the battery is charging slowly. Which of the following steps should a technician take first
to charge the battery normally?
- Adjust laptop battery performance.
- Try a different charging port.
- Use a different power supply.
- Replace the laptop battery.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely cause of slow charging after borrowing a charger is that the borrowed adapter is not
the correct wattage or is not fully compatible with the laptop. Many laptops will still charge with an
underpowered or non-matching adapter, but they often charge very slowly, may display a warning
like “plugged in, not charging fast,” or may reduce performance to stay within the available power
budget. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 troubleshooting, the first step is to check the simplest and most
probable cause, especially when the symptom began immediately after a change. Using the proper
manufacturer-recommended charger (correct voltage/amperage and connector type, or correct USBC PD wattage profile if applicable) restores normal charging behavior in most cases.
Adjusting battery performance settings might reduce power draw but does not address the root
cause of insufficient charger output. Trying a different charging port can help if a port is damaged,
but the timing strongly points to the borrowed charger. Replacing the battery is the most invasive
and least likely first step because the battery was presumably functioning before the charger change.
Therefore, the technician should first use a different, known-good power supply with the correct
specifications.
Question: 356
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Which of the following networking hardware devices is primarily used to connect different network
segments and forward data based on MAC addresses?
- Router
- Switch
- Modem
- Firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
A switch is the device that primarily forwards traffic based on MAC addresses and is used to connect
devices within the same local network. It operates at Layer 2 (Data Link) of the OSI model. When a
switch receives an Ethernet frame, it reads the source MAC address and records it in its MAC address
table along with the port it arrived on. Then, when the switch needs to send a frame to a destination,
it looks up the destination MAC address in that table and forwards the frame only out the correct
port. This makes switching efficient and reduces unnecessary traffic compared to older hub-based
networks. In CompTIA A+ Core 1, recognizing that MAC-based forwarding is a key switch function is
essential.
A router forwards traffic based on IP addresses at Layer 3 and is used to connect different IP
networks or VLANs. A modem converts signals for ISP connectivity (e.g., cable/DSL/fiber handoff)
and does not forward frames by MAC table learning. A firewall filters traffic based on security rules
and is not primarily a MAC-forwarding device. Therefore, the best answer is Switch.
Question: 357
A programmer needs to run a virtual machine on their laptop to test an application. Which of the
following virtualization technologies is the best way to accomplish this goal?
- Containerization
- Hypervisor
- Virtual desktop infrastructure
- Emulation
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A hypervisor is the best choice because it is the technology specifically used to create, run, and
manage virtual machines. On a laptop, this is typically a Type 2 hypervisor (hosted hypervisor) that
runs on top of the existing operating system and allows the programmer to install a separate guest
OS in a VM for testing. This provides strong isolation, supports snapshots/checkpoints in many
platforms, and lets the tester replicate different OS environments, configurations, and software
dependencies without altering the host system. That matches the scenario exactly: the user needs an
actual VM environment on their local machine.
Containerization is useful for packaging and running applications in isolated user spaces, but
containers share the host OS kernel and are not full virtual machines. If the test requires a different
OS or kernel-level behavior, containers won’t meet the requirement. VDI delivers desktops hosted on
remote servers, not a local VM running on the laptop. Emulation imitates different
hardware/architectures and is typically slower and used when running software built for
incompatible hardware, which is unnecessary for standard VM testing. Therefore, a hypervisor is the
best answer.
Question: 358
A user’s laptop experiences intermittent issues during startup. A technician finds that the user has
left a corporate flash drive plugged in, which is causing the issues. Which of the following should the
technician configure?
- BitLocker
- Boot options
- USB Enable
- TPM features
Answer: B
Explanation:
If a laptop has a USB flash drive connected during startup, the system firmware BIOS or UEFI may
attempt to boot from that USB device depending on the configured boot order or boot priority. This
can cause intermittent startup behavior because the laptop might sometimes detect the flash drive
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as a bootable device and try to load from it instead of the internal drive, leading to delays, boot
errors, or unexpected screens. The correct fix is to adjust boot options in BIOS/UEFI: set the internal
SSD/HDD as the first boot device, reduce the priority of USB boot devices, or disable booting from
external media when appropriate for the environment. This addresses the root cause directly and
prevents the presence of a flash drive from affecting normal startup.
BitLocker and TPM features relate to drive encryption and secure key storage and are not the primary
reason the system is changing its boot behavior. “USB Enable” would control whether USB ports
function, but disabling USB entirely is not a targeted first step and could break keyboards/mice or
legitimate USB use. Therefore, the correct configuration item is Boot options.
Question: 359
A customer experiences a power outage at their data center. After the outage, one server with three
hard drives in RAID 5 does not come back online. When a technician connects to the server, they
receive a message stating that Drive 3 has failed. Which of the following steps should the technician
take next to minimize the risk of data loss?
- Replace the defective drive and trigger an array rebuild.
- Acknowledge the drive error and allow the system to start normally.
- Upgrade the firmware on the drives.
- Perform a full drive restore from the most recent backup.
Answer: A
Explanation:
RAID 5 provides fault tolerance by distributing parity information across all drives, allowing the array
to continue operating if one drive fails. In a three-drive RAID 5 set, a single disk failure puts the array
into a degraded state where it can still function, but it is at higher risk because losing a second drive
before recovery would cause data loss. Since the system reports Drive 3 has failed after a power
outage, the best next step to minimize risk is to replace the failed drive immediately and start the
rebuild. Rebuilding regenerates the missing data blocks onto the new drive using parity, returning
the array to a protected state.
Option B leaves the array degraded and increases exposure to a second failure. Option C (firmware
upgrade) is not a first response in an active failure scenario and can introduce additional risk or
downtime. Option D (restore from backup) is typically used when the array is unrecoverable or
multiple drives fail; it is more disruptive and unnecessary when RAID 5 can recover from a single-disk
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failure. Therefore, replacing the defective drive and triggering an array rebuild is the correct next
step.
Question: 360
A user is setting up a gaming PC with multiple GPUs to play highly advanced games. The user’s
primary concern is that the power supply is sufficient to support these tasks while allowing for future
upgrades. Which of the following power supply configurations should the user select?
- Redundant
- Non-modular
- Low wattage
- Multiple-rail
Answer: D
Explanation:
For a gaming PC with multiple GPUs, the power supply must safely deliver high current on the 12V
rails, since GPUs and CPUs draw most of their power from 12V. A multiple-rail power supply divides
the 12V output into separate rails protected by overcurrent protection (OCP). This configuration
helps prevent a single rail from being overloaded and can provide safer distribution when several
high-draw components (multiple GPUs, high-end CPU) are installed. From a CompTIA A+ Core 1
perspective, selecting PSU characteristics that match system load and expansion needs is key, and
multi-rail designs are directly related to supporting multiple high-power devices with better
protection controls.
The other options do not meet the goal. Redundant PSUs are typically used in servers for uptime, not
consumer gaming builds, and they don’t inherently address GPU power distribution. Non-modular
only affects cable management and airflow, not power capability or scalability. Low wattage directly
conflicts with the requirement for multi-GPU performance and future upgrades. Therefore, the best
choice given is multiple-rail.
Question: 361
A user’s tablet screen is unresponsive to touch. The device does not show any signs of physical
damage, and a system reset does not resolve the issue. Which of the following should a technician
replace?
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- Battery
- Motherboard
- LCD screen
- Digitizer
Answer: D
Explanation:
A tablet’s display is made of two key parts that work together: the LCD (or OLED) that shows the
image, and the digitizer that detects touch input. If the screen image looks normal but the device
does not respond to taps, swipes, or gestures, the most likely failed component is the digitizer (or the
digitizer layer/cable). The digitizer is a transparent sensor grid that converts touch into signals the
system can interpret. When it fails, the tablet may still power on and show a clear picture, but touch
will not register at all or will behave erratically.
Because the device shows no physical damage and a system reset does not fix the issue, this points
away from a software glitch and toward a hardware input failure. Replacing the LCD screen is
typically indicated when you see display problems such as no image, distorted colors, flickering, dead
pixels, or backlight issues—not purely touch failure. A battery problem would affect power/charging,
not touch responsiveness. A motherboard replacement is far more invasive and not the most likely
first hardware fix for a touch-only failure. Therefore, the correct component to replace is the digitizer.
Question: 362
Which of the following cloud models allows an organization to have exclusive access to cloud
resources?
- Public
- Hybrid
- Private
- Community
Answer: C
Explanation:
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A private cloud provides cloud resources that are dedicated to a single organization, giving that
organization exclusive use of the underlying infrastructure. This model is selected when a company
needs tighter control over security, compliance, performance, and customization than what is
typically available in a multi-tenant public cloud environment. Private cloud resources can be hosted
on-premises in the organization’s own data center or hosted by a third party, but the key point is
exclusive access—the hardware and cloud environment are not shared with unrelated customers.
A public cloud is shared among multiple customers (multi-tenant), so it is not exclusive. A hybrid
cloud combines two environments, usually a private cloud and a public cloud, which can help with
flexibility and scaling, but it is not defined as exclusive because part of it may be public. A community
cloud is shared by organizations with common needs (such as similar compliance requirements),
meaning it is shared among multiple entities rather than exclusive to one organization. Therefore,
the cloud model that provides exclusive access to resources is Private.
Question: 363
A user turns on their laptop. The keyboard lights up, but the screen is black even after the user
restarts the laptop. Which of the following should a technician do next to troubleshoot the issue?
- Connect the laptop to an external monitor.
- Remove the device bezel.
- Plug in a laptop charger.
- Replace the laptop.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the keyboard backlight turns on, the laptop is receiving power and at least partially
completing its startup hardware initialization. A black internal display can be caused by multiple
issues, including a failed LCD/backlight, a loose or damaged display cable, an incorrect display output
selection, or a graphics subsystem problem. The best next troubleshooting step is to connect the
laptop to an external monitor because it quickly isolates whether the problem is with the internal
display assembly or with the system’s ability to generate video at all.
If the external monitor displays video normally, the GPU and motherboard are likely functioning, and
the technician should focus on the laptop’s internal screen components such as the LCD panel,
backlight, display cable, or connector seating—often accessed by removing the bezel only after
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confirming this. If the external monitor also shows no video, the issue is more likely related to
graphics output, memory, motherboard, or firmware/POST problems, and further internal
diagnostics are required. Plugging in a charger is reasonable if the device seems underpowered, but
it does not directly test the video path. Replacing the laptop is not an appropriate “next step” in
troubleshooting.
Question: 364
Switch#show running-config | section interface
interface gigabitEthernet0/1
ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.0
duplex full
speed 1000
description Sales
interface gigabitEthernet0/2
ip address 192.168.1.12 255.255.255.0
duplex full
speed 1000
description CustomerService
interface gigabitEthernet0/3
ip address 192.168.1.13 255.255.255.0
duplex auto
speed auto
description Marketing
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issues?
- The marketing department subnet has an error.
- The structured Cat 5e cabling is outdated.
- The interfaces are configured with incorrect IP addresses.
- The marketing department interface is running at 10/100.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
GigabitEthernet interfaces are capable of 1000 Mbps, but the actual link speed is determined by
negotiation between the switch port and the connected device, along with the quality/type of
cabling. In this configuration, Sales and CustomerService ports are manually set to speed 1000 and
duplex full, which forces gigabit operation. However, the Marketing port is set to speed auto and
duplex auto. If the connected endpoint, patch cable, wall jack, or intermediate wiring for Marketing
cannot support gigabit (or has a termination problem), the link may auto-negotiate down to 100
Mbps or 10 Mbps. That creates a clear performance bottleneck for that department compared to the
other two ports running at 1 Gbps.
The IP addresses shown are consistent within the same /24 network and do not indicate an obvious
addressing problem, so “incorrect IP addresses” is unlikely. “Subnet error” is not supported by the
given config, and Cat 5e is generally capable of gigabit at typical distances, so “outdated” cable is not
the best explanation from these choices. The most likely cause is Marketing running at 10/100 due to
negotiation.
Question: 365
An end user is able to send emails but not receive them. Which of the following settings should a
technician check first on the user’s laptop to troubleshoot the issue?
- DNS
- SMTP
- IMAP
- DMARC
Answer: C
Explanation:
If a user can send email but cannot receive email, the most likely issue is with the incoming mail
configuration rather than the outgoing mail configuration. SMTP is primarily used for sending mail
from a client to a mail server (and between mail servers), so working outbound email strongly
suggests SMTP settings are correct. To receive email, the client must connect to an incoming mail
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service such as IMAP (or POP3). Therefore, the first setting to verify on the laptop is the IMAP
configuration, including the incoming server address, port number, encryption method (SSL/TLS),
and authentication credentials. If any of these are wrong, the client may fail to synchronize the
mailbox, making it appear that mail is not arriving even though messages exist on the server.
DNS can affect both sending and receiving because clients must resolve mail server hostnames, but
when the symptom is specifically “send works, receive fails,” checking the dedicated incoming
protocol settings is the most direct and likely fix. DMARC is an email authentication policy used at the
domain level and is not a laptop-side setting the technician would check first for a single user’s
inbound mail problem.
Question: 366
A user has two SSDs of the same size in their PC. The user wants to configure both SSDs to have a
copy of all data so there will be no data loss if one drive fails. Which of the following is this an
example of?
- RAID 0
- RAID 1
- RAID 5
- RAID 10
Answer: B
Explanation:
This scenario describes disk mirroring, which is RAID 1. With RAID 1, the same data is written to two
drives simultaneously, creating an exact duplicate on each SSD. If one drive fails, the system can
continue to operate using the remaining drive with no loss of data, which directly matches the
requirement “no data loss if one drive fails.” RAID 1 is commonly used when fault tolerance and data
redundancy are the priority. A key trade-off is capacity: because the data is duplicated, the usable
storage is essentially the size of one of the drives (two 1TB drives in RAID 1 provide about 1TB
usable). Performance can vary: read performance may improve slightly in some implementations,
but write performance is generally similar to a single drive because data must be written to both
drives.
RAID 0 is striping with no redundancy, so a single drive failure causes total data loss. RAID 5 requires
at least three drives and uses parity. RAID 10 requires at least four drives and combines mirroring
and striping. Therefore, the correct answer is RAID 1.
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Question: 367
A technician is evaluating how to connect a power-redundant server to the outlets of a rack. Which
of the following is the best way to provide electricity to the server?
- Using only one power outlet, as the system will provide energy to the redundant source
- Leaving one of the power supplies disconnected for use in case the other fails
- Identifying available power outlets in different UPSs and distributing the connection between
them
- Connecting the device to one dedicated battery backup to provide continuous energy
Answer: C
Explanation:
A power-redundant server typically has two power supplies so the system can continue operating if
one power supply or one power feed fails. To gain the full benefit of redundancy, each PSU should be
connected to independent power sources—commonly separate PDUs that are backed by different
UPS units (and ideally separate circuits). This design removes a single point of failure: if one UPS
Comprehensive and Detailed 150 to 250 words of Explanation From CompTIA Core 1 Knowledge
trips, fails, or is taken offline for maintenance, the other UPS still provides power and the server stays
online.
Option C is best because it explicitly describes distributing the connections across different UPSs,
which is the correct redundancy practice in a rack environment. Option A defeats redundancy
because a single outlet/UPS failure would still bring the server down. Option B also wastes
redundancy and can cause immediate downtime if the connected PSU fails, since the second PSU
isn’t actively providing standby power. Option D still leaves a single UPS as the single point of failure.
Therefore, splitting the two PSU power cords across separate UPS-backed outlets is the best
approach.
Question: 368
A customer’s laptop is no longer charging when plugged in to the docking station. A technician
observes that none of the devices plugged in to the dock appear to be functioning. The technician
verifies that the dock has power, the laptop ports are not damaged, and the BIOS updates are
current, but the issue persists. Which of the following should the technician do next?
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- Switch the power supply.
- Replace the dock with a new one.
- Reinstall the OS on the laptop.
- Roll back the BIOS updates.
Answer: B
Explanation:
When both charging and dock-connected peripherals fail at the same time, the problem is most likely
with the dock itself or its internal controller circuitry rather than the laptop’s operating system or a
single peripheral device. The technician has already verified key prerequisites: the dock has power,
the laptop ports show no physical damage, and system firmware (BIOS/UEFI) is current. Those checks
reduce the likelihood of a simple firmware incompatibility or a damaged laptop connector.
In CompTIA A+ troubleshooting methodology, the next step is to substitute with a known-good
component to isolate the fault quickly. Replacing (or testing with) another dock confirms whether the
original docking station has failed. If the replacement dock restores charging and peripherals
immediately, the root cause is confirmed without unnecessary invasive actions.
Switching the power supply could be a valid step if power was questionable, but the prompt states
the dock already has power and still provides no function—pointing to dock failure. Reinstalling the
OS is excessive and unlikely because charging through a dock is not primarily OS-dependent. Rolling
back BIOS updates is also not indicated because the issue persists despite current firmware and there
is no evidence the BIOS update caused it.
Question: 369
Which of the following devices is designed specifically to allow multiple network devices to
communicate across a single platform?
- NIC
- Firewall
- Switch
- Routers
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A switch is designed to connect multiple devices within the same local network so they can
communicate efficiently. In a typical LAN, a switch provides multiple Ethernet ports and forwards
traffic between connected devices by using MAC addresses. When a frame enters a switch port, the
switch learns the source MAC address and associates it with that port in a MAC address table. When
the destination MAC is known, the switch sends the frame only out the correct port, which reduces
unnecessary traffic and improves performance compared to older hub-based networks. This is
exactly what is meant by allowing multiple network devices to communicate “across a single
platform” (the switching fabric).
A NIC is an adapter in an endpoint device that provides network connectivity, but it does not
interconnect multiple devices by itself. A firewall focuses on filtering and controlling traffic based on
security rules, not primarily on providing multi-device LAN connectivity. Routers connect different
networks and forward traffic based on IP addresses (Layer 3), which is not the primary device for
multi-device communication within the same network segment. Therefore, the correct answer is
Switch.
Question: 370
Which of the following is used to verify that an emailer is allowed and designated to send emails
from a particular IP address?
- CNAME
- SPF
- DKIM
- DMARC
Answer: B
Explanation:
SPF (Sender Policy Framework) is the mechanism used to verify whether a sending mail server’s IP
address is authorized to send email on behalf of a specific domain. SPF works through a DNS record
(typically a TXT record) published by the domain owner. When a receiving mail server gets an email
claiming to be from a domain, it checks the SPF record for that domain and compares the source IP of
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the sending server against the list of permitted IP addresses or permitted sending services. If the IP is
listed (or matches an allowed range/mechanism), SPF passes; if not, SPF fails. This directly matches
the question requirement: “verify that an emailer is allowed and designated to send emails from a
particular IP address.”
The other options do not focus on authorizing an IP to send mail. DKIM uses cryptographic signatures
to verify message integrity and that the message was signed by a domain’s private key, not to
authorize a sending IP. DMARC is a policy framework that tells receivers what to do when SPF and/or
DKIM fail and adds alignment rules and reporting. CNAME is a DNS alias record and is not an email
authorization control. Therefore, the correct answer is SPF.
Question: 371
A user’s new computer is exhibiting issues after a couple hours of use. The screen freezes and typed
characters do not appear for several seconds, if at all. The computer unexpectedly restarts while the
user is reading an email. A technician runs diagnostics and verifies that no components show any
errors. All hardware meets or exceeds recommendations. Which of the following should the
technician do next?
- Check for swollen capacitors.
- Replace the power supply with a higher wattage rating.
- Increase the amount of RAM.
- Change the CMOS battery.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Intermittent freezing followed by unexpected restarts after the system has been running for a while
often points to a hardware stability problem that worsens with heat and time, rather than an
immediate configuration or “not enough resources” issue. When diagnostics show no errors, the next
CompTIA A+-style step is to look for physical signs of failing components. Swollen or leaking
capacitors on the motherboard or in the power delivery area can cause unstable voltage regulation
as the system warms up, leading to input lag, lockups, and spontaneous reboots even during light
tasks like reading email. A visual inspection can quickly confirm this failure mode and is an
appropriate next troubleshooting action when software and basic diagnostics are inconclusive.
Replacing the power supply with a higher wattage is not the best next step because the workload
described is not high draw, and the symptom is not clearly tied to peak load; if a PSU is suspect, the
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usual step is testing with a known-good PSU of correct specs, not simply “higher wattage.” Increasing
RAM is unnecessary because the system meets requirements and this would more commonly cause
persistent slowness, not sudden restarts. A CMOS battery issue typically causes time resets or BIOS
setting loss, not freezing and random reboots after hours.
Question: 372
A manager wants to ensure that employees can only pick up their own printouts. Which of the
following accomplishes this objective? Select two.
- PCL
- Tray selection
- Duplex setting
- User PIN
- RFID
- USB
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
To ensure employees only pick up their own printouts, the printer must use an authentication-based
release method so jobs are not immediately printed into the output tray where anyone can take
them. A User PIN enables secure or “held” printing: the job is sent to the printer but remains stored
in the printer’s queue until the user walks up to the device and enters the correct PIN on the control
panel. Only after successful PIN entry does the printer release and print that specific job, preventing
accidental or unauthorized pickup of sensitive documents.
RFID supports badge-based authentication and is commonly used with secure print release systems
in offices. Users tap an RFID badge at the printer to authenticate, and then the printer releases only
the authenticated user’s queued print jobs. This is convenient and reduces the chance of users
sharing PINs, while still enforcing that jobs are released only when the correct user is physically
present.
PCL is a printer language, tray selection and duplex are print settings, and USB is a connection
method—none of these enforce user-specific job release. Therefore, the correct answers are User
PIN and RFID.
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Question: 373
A technician needs to run cable for a new office through a drop ceiling. Which of the following cable
types should the technician run?
- BNC
- Fiber-optic
- Coaxial
- Plenum
Answer: D
Explanation:
When running network cable through a drop ceiling, the space above the ceiling is often used as part
of the building’s air circulation system (an air return). In these plenum spaces, building and fire safety
standards require cable jackets that produce less smoke and fewer toxic fumes if exposed to heat or
fire. Plenum-rated cable is manufactured with a special fire-resistant jacket designed for these
environments, making it the correct choice for safe and compliant cabling runs in ceilings and other
air-handling areas. This is a key CompTIA A+ Core 1 concept: selecting the proper cable rating based
on where the cable is installed to reduce safety hazards and meet code requirements.
The other options do not match the requirement. BNC is a connector type commonly associated with
older coaxial networking and certain video applications, not a cable rating for ceiling installations.
Coaxial is a cable type used for cable internet and some video signals, but the question is specifically
about the required type for a drop ceiling environment, which is about the jacket rating. Fiber-optic
is used for high-speed backbone links and long distances, but the question is focused on
safety/installation requirements in a ceiling space. Therefore, plenum is the best answer.
Question: 374
A business purchases a computer with a built-in WWAN card. Which of the following technologies
does the computer’s WWAN card support?
- SIM
- NFC
- Bluetooth
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- Wi-Fi
Answer: A
Explanation:
A WWAN card provides cellular wide-area network connectivity (such as LTE or 5G) for a laptop,
allowing it to access mobile data networks similar to a smartphone. To authenticate to a cellular
carrier and identify the subscriber account, WWAN devices typically use a SIM (Subscriber Identity
Module) or an embedded SIM. The SIM contains carrier subscription information and security
credentials used during registration on the cellular network. Without a valid SIM or eSIM profile, the
WWAN radio may be present, but it cannot complete carrier authentication and will not provide
cellular data service.
The other options are different wireless technologies that are not the defining requirement for
WWAN service. Wi-Fi is WLAN connectivity, usually provided by a separate Wi-Fi adapter. Bluetooth
is a short-range personal area networking technology for peripherals and tethering. NFC is very
short-range communication used mainly for tap-to-pair or payments. Therefore, the technology a
built-in WWAN card supports in this context is SIM.
Question: 375
Which of the following cables can carry a video signal?
- MicroUSB
- USB-A
- MiniUSB
- USB-C
Answer: D
Explanation:
USB-C can carry a video signal because the USB-C connector supports Alternate Modes, most
commonly DisplayPort Alt Mode, which allows the cable and port to transmit video (and often audio)
to an external display. Many modern laptops, tablets, and phones use USB-C to output video to
monitors, TVs, and docks. In addition, some USB-C ports support Thunderbolt (depending on the
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device), which can also carry display signals along with data and power. This makes USB-C a versatile
“single-cable” solution for charging, data transfer, and external display connectivity—an important
concept in CompTIA A+ Core 1 when identifying connector capabilities and choosing the correct
cable type.
The other options are not the best answer for standard video output in typical PC support scenarios.
USB-A is a common data connector but does not natively carry a direct video signal like HDMI or
DisplayPort (it would require an adapter that converts USB data to video). MicroUSB and MiniUSB
were mainly designed for data and charging on older devices; while certain proprietary/legacy
implementations existed, they are not the primary, modern, or expected video-carrying cable type in
A+ objectives. Therefore, USB-C is the correct choice.
Question: 376
A technician must install additional RAM in a desktop computer. Which of the following types of RAM
will the technician most likely use?
- Static
- ECC
- DIMM
- Registered
Answer: C
Explanation:
Desktop computers most commonly use DIMM modules (Dual Inline Memory Module) for system
memory. DIMMs are the standard full-size RAM sticks installed in desktop motherboard memory
slots and are available in modern DDR generations such as DDR4 and DDR5. CompTIA A+ Core 1
expects you to distinguish common form factors: desktops use DIMM, while laptops typically use SODIMM (Small Outline DIMM).
The other options are either specialized memory types or not the typical “type” used to describe
desktop installation. Static refers to SRAM (static RAM), which is used for CPU cache and other
internal high-speed buffers, not for installing system RAM modules in a desktop. ECC (ErrorCorrecting Code) memory is used mainly in servers/workstations where data integrity is critical and
requires motherboard/CPU support; it is not the most likely choice for a typical desktop upgrade.
Registered (buffered) memory is also primarily for servers and compatible platforms, improving
stability with large memory configurations but not common in standard desktops. Therefore, the best
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answer for typical desktop RAM installation is DIMM.
Question: 377
After a laptop screen has been replaced, the laptop is having Wi-Fi connectivity issues. No SSIDs are
discovered. Bluetooth and Ethernet are working. Which of the following should a technician
investigate first?
- Wireless card
- Wireless antenna
- Wireless AP
- Network interface card
- Motherboard
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a laptop screen is replaced, the technician typically removes the display assembly components
and works near the hinge area where the Wi-Fi antenna leads are routed. In most laptops, the Wi-Fi
antennas are built into the display bezel and connect to the wireless adapter using thin coax cables
labeled MAIN/AUX. If one or both antenna leads are left disconnected, pinched, or not fully seated
during reassembly, the Wi-Fi adapter may still appear in the OS, but the radio signal strength
becomes extremely weak. A common symptom is no SSIDs found or only very close/strong networks
intermittently.
Bluetooth working does not rule this out because Bluetooth can have separate antennas or may still
function at short range even when Wi-Fi reception is poor. Ethernet working confirms general
network access and suggests the issue is isolated to the Wi-Fi radio path rather than the router, ISP,
or OS networking stack. The wireless access point is unlikely to be the cause if the issue started
immediately after hardware service and other devices can see SSIDs. Therefore, the first hardware
check should be the wireless antenna connections and routing.
Question: 378
Which of the following cloud delivery models should an organization choose when it requires
ownership of all physical hardware?
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- Hybrid cloud
- Private cloud
- Public cloud
- IaaS
- PaaS
Answer: B
Explanation:
A private cloud is the best choice when an organization requires ownership and control of all physical
hardware. In CompTIA A+ terms, a private cloud is a cloud deployment model where the cloud
infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization and can be implemented on-premises (or hosted
for that organization only). If the requirement explicitly states the organization must own the servers,
storage, and network equipment, that aligns with a private cloud built and maintained using the
organization’s own datacenter resources. This provides greater control over security, compliance,
customization, and data governance compared with shared models.
A public cloud is owned and operated by a third-party provider, so the organization does not own the
underlying hardware. A hybrid cloud combines private and public components; since part of it relies
on provider-owned infrastructure, it does not meet the requirement of owning all physical hardware.
IaaS and PaaS are cloud service models (what is consumed), not deployment/delivery models (how it
is deployed), and they commonly run on provider-owned hardware as well. Therefore, Private cloud
is the correct answer.
Question: 379
Which of the following characteristics is a benefit of cloud computing?
- Unmetered use regardless of demand fluctuations
- Centralized location for all global data
- On-demand, self-service capabilities
- Limited access via custom interfaces
Answer: C
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Explanation:
A key benefit and defining characteristic of cloud computing in CompTIA A+ Core 1 is on-demand,
self-service. This means users or administrators can quickly provision computing resources—such as
virtual machines, storage, or applications—without requiring manual intervention from the cloud
provider each time. For example, an organization can deploy a new server instance in minutes to
support a new project, then scale it down or remove it when no longer needed. This improves agility,
speeds up deployment, and supports rapid changes in workload.
Option A is incorrect because cloud services are typically metered (measured) and billed based on
usage, which is part of the “measured service” cloud concept. Option B is incorrect because cloud
data is often distributed across multiple regions for redundancy and performance; it is not inherently
“centralized for all global data.” Option D is incorrect because cloud services generally emphasize
broad network access using standard methods and interfaces, not limited access through custom
interfaces only. Therefore, on-demand, self-service capabilities best represents a cloud computing
benefit.
Question: 380
A user asks a technician to recommend a CPU upgrade for a desktop computer. Which of the
following should the technician consider first?
- Core count
- Socket type
- Bus frequency
- Integrated GPU
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first consideration for a desktop CPU upgrade is the socket type, because the processor must be
physically and electrically compatible with the motherboard. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 hardware terms,
CPUs are designed for specific sockets (for example, Intel LGA or AMD AM-series), and a mismatch
means the CPU simply cannot be installed. Even within the same brand, different generations may
use different sockets, and the motherboard’s chipset and BIOS/UEFI must also support the selected
CPU model. If the socket is wrong, factors like core count, frequency, and integrated graphics
become irrelevant because the system will not POST or function.
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After confirming socket compatibility, the technician would typically evaluate other constraints such
as BIOS/UEFI update requirements, power and cooling (TDP and heatsink/fan capability), and RAM
compatibility supported by the platform. Only then do performance-related preferences like core
count (multitasking), bus/clock characteristics, or whether an integrated GPU is needed (if no
discrete video card is present) become meaningful selection criteria. Therefore, the correct first
consideration is the motherboard socket type.
Question: 381
Which of the following controls network traffic based on MAC addresses?
- Router
- PoE injector
- Firewall
- Switch
Answer: D
Explanation:
A switch is the network device that controls and forwards traffic primarily based on MAC addresses.
In CompTIA A+ Core 1 networking, a switch operates at Layer 2 (Data Link) of the OSI model. When
devices communicate on an Ethernet LAN, the switch learns the source MAC addresses from
incoming frames and stores them in a MAC address table (CAM table) along with the port where
each device is connected. After learning, the switch uses the destination MAC address in each
Ethernet frame to decide which specific port should receive the traffic, which reduces unnecessary
transmissions and improves overall network efficiency compared to a hub. If the destination MAC is
unknown, the switch will flood the frame out other ports (except the one it came in on) until it learns
the correct location.
A router makes forwarding decisions using IP addresses at Layer 3, not MAC-based switching
decisions. A PoE injector only supplies electrical power over Ethernet and does not manage traffic
forwarding. A firewall filters traffic based on rules (IP, ports, protocols, and sometimes
application/state), but the classic CompTIA A+ answer for MAC-based traffic control on a LAN is a
switch.
Question: 382
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An end user wants to share their cellular internet connection with their laptop. Which of the
following technologies should they use?
- Hotspot
- Bluetooth
- NFC
- Ethernet
Answer: A
Explanation:
To share a phone’s cellular data connection with a laptop, the user should use a hotspot, also known
as mobile hotspot or Wi-Fi tethering. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 terms, this feature allows a smartphone
to act like a small wireless router: it takes the phone’s mobile data (4G/5G) connection and
rebroadcasts it over Wi-Fi so another device (the laptop) can join the wireless network using an SSID
and password. This is the most common and straightforward method because laptops universally
support Wi-Fi and the connection typically provides better throughput than other tethering methods.
Hotspot/tethering settings also commonly allow configuration of security (WPA2/WPA3) and can
limit connected devices to reduce unauthorized access and manage data usage.
Bluetooth (option B) can support tethering on some devices, but it is slower, more limited, and not
the primary expected answer when the goal is simply sharing cellular internet with a laptop. NFC
(option C) is mainly used for close-range pairing or payments and does not provide an internet
sharing link by itself. Ethernet (option D) would require wired adapters and is not the standard
method for cellular sharing. Therefore, Hotspot is the best answer.
Question: 383
A company wants to get the fastest network speeds possible between nearby locations. If all
technologies are available, which of the following connection types should the company use?
- Fiber
- DSL
- Satellite
- Coaxial
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Answer: A
Explanation:
Fiber is the best option when the goal is the fastest possible network speeds between nearby
locations. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 networking, fiber-optic cabling (single-mode or multimode)
provides the highest bandwidth capacity and supports very high data rates over longer distances
compared with copper media. Fiber is also highly resistant to electromagnetic interference (EMI)
because it transmits data as light rather than electrical signals, which improves reliability and signal
quality—especially in environments with motors, fluorescent lighting, or other sources of
interference. For nearby locations (such as buildings on the same campus), fiber is commonly used
for backbone links and uplinks between switches because it delivers excellent throughput and can
scale to higher speeds as equipment is upgraded.
DSL is limited by telephone-line quality and distance from the provider’s equipment, and it is
typically much slower than fiber. Satellite has higher latency and is not chosen when maximum
speed and low delay are required. Coaxial can support broadband and some high-speed links, but it
generally offers less bandwidth, more susceptibility to noise than fiber, and is not the top choice for
highest-speed interconnection when fiber is available.
Question: 384
A user’s laptop monitor dims every evening. The user manually adjusts the screen setting but wants a
permanent solution. Which of the following settings should a technician change to prevent the
issue?
- Ambient light
- Battery
- Graphics
- Scheduled tasks
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most likely cause of a laptop screen dimming consistently in the evening is an ambient
light/adaptive brightness feature. Many laptops include an ambient light sensor that automatically
changes screen brightness based on room lighting conditions. As natural light decreases later in the
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day, the sensor detects a darker environment and reduces brightness to save power and reduce eye
strain. Because this behavior occurs at a predictable time (evening) and the user can temporarily
correct it by manually increasing brightness, it strongly points to automatic brightness control rather
than a hardware failure.
Changing the Ambient light setting (disabling adaptive brightness/auto-brightness) provides a
permanent fix by preventing the system from adjusting brightness in response to lighting changes.
While battery/power plans can also dim displays to conserve energy, that usually correlates with
running on battery power or specific power-saving modes—not a consistent evening pattern.
Graphics settings typically affect resolution, scaling, or driver features and are not the primary
control for time-of-day dimming behavior. Scheduled tasks could theoretically run display-related
scripts, but that is uncommon compared to built-in ambient light adaptation. Therefore, adjusting
the ambient light/adaptive brightness setting is the best CompTIA A+ answer.
Question: 385
Which of the following devices can handle large volumes of data and uses flash memory?
- SSD
- DVD-RW
- HDD
- Tape
Answer: A
Explanation:
An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is the correct choice because it stores data using flash memory (NAND)
and is commonly available in large capacities suitable for operating systems, applications, and mass
storage. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 terms, SSDs contain no moving parts, which makes them faster and
more reliable than mechanical drives for many workloads. They provide significantly improved
read/write performance, lower latency, reduced heat output, and better shock resistance—
important for both desktops and especially laptops. SSDs are also widely used in modern systems via
SATA or NVMe (PCIe) interfaces, with NVMe offering the highest performance for large data
transfers.
The other options do not match “flash memory”: DVD-RW is optical media with limited capacity and
slower speeds, intended for removable storage rather than large-volume primary storage. An HDD
can store large volumes of data but uses magnetic platters and moving heads, not flash memory.
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Tape is also magnetic media, typically used for backups and archival storage, and while it can store
large amounts, it does not use flash and is designed for sequential access rather than fast random
access. Therefore, SSD is the best answer.
Question: 386
An IT specialist is setting up a new shared network printer. The printer will receive a pre-allocated IP
address via DHCP. Attempting to connect to the printer’s web interface produces a Page not found
message. The specialist runs diagnostics and finds that the IP is different than expected. Which of the
following should the specialist check next?
- The MAC address used in the reservation
- The printer driver on the print server
- The subnet mask that the printer is using
- The default gateway in the address pool
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a device is supposed to receive a specific “pre-allocated” address from DHCP, that typically
means a DHCP reservation has been created. DHCP reservations work by mapping a specific MAC
address to a chosen IP address so that when that exact device requests an address, the DHCP server
always hands it the reserved IP. If diagnostics show the printer received a different IP than expected,
the most likely cause is that the reservation is not being applied—commonly because the reservation
references the wrong MAC address (typo, using the wrong interface, or copying the MAC of another
port such as Wi-Fi vs Ethernet). Verifying the printer’s actual MAC address and matching it to the
DHCP reservation is the correct next step.
The printer driver on the print server (B) affects printing functionality, not the printer’s DHCP
assignment or ability to browse its embedded web server. Subnet mask (C) and default gateway in
the pool (D) could cause connectivity issues, but they would not usually explain why the device
received an unexpected IP when a reservation was intended. The key mismatch symptom points first
to the MAC address in the reservation.
Question: 387
A technician is working on a high-end gaming computer that was built several years ago. The
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customer reports that the system will work OK for a short time, but then the system performs slowly
until it finally locks up and turns off. Which of the following should the technician check first?
- Voltage input and output from the power supply
- Fan speed and airflow through the heat sinks
- Memory channel configuration and CAS timings
- File fragmentation on the HDD
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. Fan speed and airflow through the heat sinks. The symptoms strongly indicate
overheating: the computer works normally at first, slows down as heat builds up, then locks up and
powers off to protect the CPU/GPU and motherboard. The Quentin Docter study guide states that a
PC that works for a few minutes and then locks up is probably overheating because a heat sink or fan
is not functioning properly, and the first troubleshooting step is to check all internal fans and ensure
the heat sinks are properly attached. High-end gaming systems are especially heat-sensitive because
CPUs and dedicated graphics cards generate substantial heat under load. The same section notes
that CPUs are common overheating sources and video cards are also very susceptible in gaming or
graphics-heavy systems. Power supply testing is useful for intermittent power problems, but the
gradual slowdown before shutdown points more directly to thermal throttling and heat buildup than
voltage failure.
=========
Question: 388
A technician needs to build a computer that can tolerate high CPU utilization and graphics usage.
Which of the following components provides the best benefit for the computer?
- Liquid cooling
- Advanced RISC
- x86 processor
- Hardware security module
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Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer is A. Liquid cooling. A system designed for sustained high CPU utilization and heavy
graphics usage needs strong thermal management. The study guide explains that the CPU is one of
the greatest cooling challenges in a computer and that modern processors require active cooling. It
also notes that high-performance CPU coolers use large heat sinks, high-CFM fans, and better heat
transfer methods to dissipate processor heat. Liquid cooling is specifically listed as a CPU cooling
method and is described as using a water block to conduct heat away from the processor and
circulate it to a radiator for cooling. The Mike Meyers material also explains that liquid cooling is
useful for systems that are overclocked or need quieter, stronger cooling. Advanced RISC and x86
describe CPU architecture, not a cooling improvement. A hardware security module protects
cryptographic keys and does not help with CPU/GPU heat or performance stability.
=========
Question: 389
A company rolls out a mandatory OS update to all PCs. A legacy application that one department
uses does not function on the new OS and is end-of-life. Which of the following should a technician
suggest to solve the issue with minimal data loss, expense, and disruption to the users?
- Setting up a bare-metal hypervisor to isolate the outdated OS
- Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor
- Upgrading to an alternative product and importing the data
- Uploading the database to a private cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor. The issue is
application compatibility after an OS update. The Quentin Docter study guide explains that
application virtualization is commonly used for legacy software or a legacy OS because older
applications often run only on older operating systems. It further explains that virtualization allows
users to run multiple environments without buying extra hardware, which directly matches the
requirement for minimal cost and disruption. A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing host
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operating system, making it suitable for a department workstation scenario because users can keep
the new supported OS while accessing the legacy application in a virtualized environment. A baremetal Type 1 hypervisor is usually server-side and would be more disruptive and expensive.
Migrating to a new product and importing data may be the long-term answer, but it introduces
higher cost, retraining, and possible data loss. A private cloud does not solve OS compatibility by
itself.
=========
Question: 390
A computer runs normally for several minutes, gradually runs slower, and then shuts down without
warning. Which of the following resolves this issue?
- Upgrading the memory
- Replacing the fans
- Adding drive space
- Swapping the power supply
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. Replacing the fans. The key clue is the sequence: normal operation, gradual
slowdown, and then sudden shutdown. That pattern is typical of overheating. As temperature rises,
modern CPUs and GPUs may throttle performance to reduce heat; if cooling remains inadequate, the
system may lock up or shut down to prevent damage. The Quentin Docter study guide specifically
states that overheating components may cause intermittent shutdowns and that a PC working for a
few minutes and then locking up is probably experiencing a heat sink or fan problem. It recommends
checking all fans and heat sinks first. The study guide also notes that motherboards often include
CPU heat and fan sensors that can shut the computer down before damage occurs if active cooling
fails. Upgrading RAM or adding drive space could improve some performance issues, but they would
not usually cause a heat-related shutdown. A failing power supply can cause shutdowns, but the
gradual slowdown before power-off makes fan/cooling failure the better match.
=========
Question: 391
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A technician needs to replace a laptop’s display assembly. Which of the following should the
technician do to complete this task?
- Reattach the heat sinks
- Reconnect the wireless antennas
- Install a new CPU fan
- Reset the BIOS to default settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is B. Reconnect the wireless antennas. Laptop display assemblies commonly contain
more than just the screen. The Quentin Docter study guide explains that laptop display components
may include the display panel, webcam, microphone, inverter, and Wi-Fi antenna. It also states that
Wi-Fi antenna wiring is generally routed through the upper half of the clamshell case, down through
the hinge, and to the motherboard or wireless NIC. During display assembly removal, the technician
disconnects the wireless NIC, display cable, and touch-screen cable, and the guide notes that the NIC
antenna wires travel with the display assembly. Therefore, after replacing the display assembly,
reconnecting the wireless antennas is a required step to restore wireless functionality. Reattaching
heat sinks and installing a CPU fan relate to CPU cooling, not display replacement. Resetting BIOS
defaults is unrelated unless a firmware setting caused a specific issue, which is not indicated here.
The display assembly procedure directly supports reconnecting the antenna wiring.
=========
Question: 392
A user cannot access any local or remote resources. A technician runs a command to find the
configuration information and gets the following results:
IPv4 Address: 192.168.1.10
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.2.1
The technician checks with the NOC, and it verifies that the upstream router is configured correctly.
The next hop given to the technician matches the value in the output. Which of the following should
the technician change in order for the user’s connection to work fully?
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- DNS settings
- Gateway
- Lease time
- Firewall rules
- Subnet mask
Answer: E
Explanation:
The best answer is E. Subnet mask. With the current subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, the user’s IP
address 192.168.1.10 is on the 192.168.1.0/24 network, while the default gateway 192.168.2.1 is on
the 192.168.2.0/24 network. A host normally needs its default gateway to be reachable on the same
local network. The Mike Meyers material explains that the subnet mask identifies the network ID and
host ID, and every computer on a single LAN must have the same network ID. With 255.255.255.0,
the first three octets define the network, so 192.168.1.x and 192.168.2.x are different networks. The
NOC verified that the gateway value itself is correct, so changing the gateway would conflict with the
verified next hop. DNS settings would affect name resolution, not access to all local and remote
resources. Lease time and firewall rules are not indicated by the IP information. The subnet mask
must be changed so the client and gateway are in the same local IP network.
Topic 2, Simulation Performance Based Questions
Question: 393
SIMULATION
A small ISP has hired a new technician Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure
customers* home networks The trailing instructor gives me technician a starter kit with cables, cable
ends, and other network equipment and asks mm to build a working network.
The computer should be connected to have internet connectivity and the phone should be
connected to have a dial tone.
INSTRUCTIONS
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Use the appropriate cables. cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network ana connect
an components accordingly
There are 3 steps and the simulation starts on step 1.
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Answer: See the
answer below in
explanation part.
Explanation:
Answer of both steps below.
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A group of wires with different colors AI-generated content may be incorrect.
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A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
Question: 394
SIMULATION
A technician is installing a wireless access point and is required to run all cabling and make patch
cords if necessary.
INSTRUCTIONS
Part 1
For each cable type, click the (+) to select the appropriate connector and tool.
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part 2
An access point was moved and no longer has connectivity. Connect the access point, patch panel,
and switch by clicking the (+) to select the appropriate cable end for each corresponding location to
create a link.
The link will be visible after making the second selection of each pair.
Cable ends may be used multiple times, and all placeholders will be filled.
Answer: See the
solution below in
Explanation.
Explanation:
Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.
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A close-up of several cables AI-generated content may be incorrect.
Part 2
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Question: 395
SIMULATION
A user reports poor performance on the application server.
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INSTRUCTIONS
Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review the information presented in each chart to
determine which drives need to be replaced.
Select the appropriate replacement drive that should be used, for the least performance degradation
to the server.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All
button.
Answer: See the
detailed solution in
explanation below.
Explanation:
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The degraded status on Server 2 indicates a RAID-5 issue, typically due to a failed or failing drive. In
RAID-5 configurations, when one drive fails, the system can still operate but with reduced
performance as parity data is used to rebuild missing data on-the-fly.
Recommended Replacement Drive:
To minimize performance degradation, the replacement drive should be:
SAS HDD with the same specifications (64KB stripe size, no read-ahead, and write-back policy).
Matching the configuration exactly ensures seamless integration and optimizes recovery speed in the
RAID-5 array.
In RAID-5, degraded performance is expected when one drive fails, as parity data needs to rebuild
missing information during each read/write process. Replacing the failed drive restores the RAID
array to optimal status, reducing the load on existing drives and returning the system to normal
read/write performance. The write-back policy and disabled disk cache settings are designed to
reduce latency and increase efficiency, essential for handling real-time applications.
A user reports poor performance on the
application server.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review
the information presented in each chart to
determine which drives need to be replaced.
Select the appropriate replacement drive
that should be used, for the least
performance degradation to the server.
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A computer server with many black and silver parts AI-generated content may be incorrect.A
computer server with many black boxes Description automatically generated with medium
confidence
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Description automatically generated
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shot of a computer Description automatically generated
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A computer screen shot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.A computer screen
shot of a computer Description automatically generated
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shot of a computer Description automatically generated
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Description automatically generated
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Description automatically generated
Question: 396
HOTSPOT
A technician is diagnosing several device issues reported by employees.
INSTRUCTIONS
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Click on each device to review the issue. Then select the appropriate issue and solution
from the drop-down menu. Each option may be used more than once.
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Answer:
Explanation:
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A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
Question: 397
SIMULATION
A third-party contractor recently installed a new switch, router, and cabling for a small
corporate office. After the installation, users started experiencing issues connecting to
resources over the network.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each PC and server to review outputs. From the remediation section on
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the right, select an issue and solution for each device.
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Answer: See the
Explanation and
detailed steps below.
Explanation:
Looking at the network configurations and outputs from both PCs and servers, here are the possible
issues and solutions:
- PC 1
Issue: The IP address for PC1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with Server 1 (which also uses
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192.168.1.1).
Solution: Change the IP address on PC1 to a unique one within the range, like 192.168.1.3.
- PC 2
Issue: PC 2 is configured with 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with Server 2 that has the same IP address.
Solution: Update the IP address on PC 2 to something unique, like 192.168.1.4.
- Server 1
Issue: The IP address for Server 1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with PC1.
Solution: Since Server 1 and PC1 are using the same IP address, change one of them. For Server 1,
you could change the IP address to 192.168.1.5.
- Server 2
Issue: Server 2 is using the IP address 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with PC2.
Solution: Update Server 2 to use a different IP address, such as 192.168.1.6.
General Remediation:
The primary problem here is overlapping IP addresses, leading to connectivity issues. Each device on
the network must have a unique IP address. After making these changes, ensure that all devices can
communicate properly by testing the connection between devices and verifying they can access
shared resources.
Question: 398
HOTSPOT
A customer has contacted you about building two new desktops. The first desktop will be a gaming
workstation. The customer requirements include:
Playing the newest games at a high frame rate
Fast game load times
Enough storage to have several games installed at once
High-end audio
No concern about cost
Running the current Windows OS
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The second workstation will be a family workstation. The requirements include:
Capability for word processing, videoconferencing, and basic web surfing
Minimal cost, as long as it meets the requirements
Running the current Windows OS
Answer:
Explanation:
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A computer tower with a hard drive and a hard drive AI-generated content may be incorrect.
A computer tower with a computer and a hard drive AI-generated content may be incorrect.
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Question: 399
HOTSPOT
An office manager reports that a printer is experiencing performance issues. Printouts
are smudging when they are handled, and, recently whenever they need to print legal
sized documents, the paper jams before anything is printed on it.
The following paper sizes are used:
Letter (8.5x11in/21.59×27.94cm)
Legal (8.5x14in/21.59×35.56cm)
Oversized (11x17in/27.94×43.18cm)
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INSTRUCTIONS
Using the dropdown menus, select from the
available printer parts to replace only the
faulty components on the office printer to
resolve the stated issues.
If at any time you would like to bring back
the initial state of the simulation, please click
the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
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A printer with text boxes AI-generated content may be incorrect.
Question: 400
SIMULATION
Laura, a customer, has instructed you to configure her home office wireless access point.
She plans to use the wireless network for finances and has requested that the network be setup with
the highest encryption possible.
Additionally, Laura knows that her neighbors have wireless networks and wants to ensure that her
network is not being interfered with by the other networks.
She requests that the default settings be changed to the following.
Wireless Name: HomeWiFi
Shared Key: CompTIA
Router Password: Secure$1
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Finally, Laura wants to ensure that only her laptop and Smartphone can connect to the network.
Laptop: IP Address 192.168.1.100
Hardware Address: 00:0A:BF:03:C4:54
Smartphone: IP Address 192.168.1.101
Hardware Address: 09:2C:D0:22:3F:11
INSTRUCTIONS
Configure Laura’s wireless network using the network adapter window.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the situation, please click the Reset All
button.
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Answer: See the
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explanation below
Explanation:
solution as
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A screenshot of a network settings AI-generated content may be incorrect.
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
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A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
Question: 401
HOTSPOT
A customer built a computer for gaming, sourcing individual components and then assembling the
system. The OS starts up, but within a few minutes the machine locks up. The customer brought the
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computer to a technician to diagnose the issue.
Answer:
Explanation:
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correct answer is “Overclocking” and “Reduce CPU Clock speed” CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2
Ghz. Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer sothe user probably
took it too far. http://blog.logicalincrements.com/2018/12/4-troubleshooting-tips-overclocking-pc/
Question: 402
DRAG DROP
A customer recently experienced a power outage at a SOHO. The customer does not think the
components are connected properly. A print job continued running for several minutes after the
power failed, but the customer was not able to interact with the computer.
Once the UPS stopped beeping, all functioning devices also turned off.
In case of a future power failure, the customer wants to have the most time available to save cloud
documents and shut down the computer without losing any data.
INSTRUCTIONS
–
Based on the customer’s requirements, connect the customer’s devices to the proper outlets. Select
the power source for the Surge Protector and UPS. This may require reselecting dropdowns or
removing tokens.
Each token may only be used once.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All
button.
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Answer:
Explanation:
Wall Outlet
(empty — nothing goes directly to the wall)
Surge Protector (Power Source: Wall Outlet)
Printer
Scanner
UPS (Power Source: Surge Protector)
Computer
Monitor
Cable Modem
Wi-Fi Router
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Question: 403
HOTSPOT
User at site A is reporting dropped VolP calls when using a softphone application.
However, users at site B are not experiencing any issues. The VolP provider has a tool to troubleshoot
connectivity Issues.
Click on each tab to investigate the cause of the dropped calls. In Part 1, type help in each terminal to
view a list of available commands. Then, select the correct answer for each question. In Part 2, make
unnecessary network configuration changes to resolve
reported issue.
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Answer:
Explanation:
Packet loss
Plug an Ethernet cable into the workstation
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
Question: 404
DRAG DROP
An office manager reports that a printer is experiencing performance issues. Printouts are smudging
when they are handled, and, recently, whenever the manager tries to print oversized documents, the
paper jams before anything is printed on it.
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INSTRUCTIONS
Using the available printer parts, replace only the faulty components on the office printer to resolve
the stated issues.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All
button.
Answer:
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Question: 405
An end user is printing, but the image is being cut off because the paper is too small. The user did
put the correct type of paper in the printer. Which of the following should the user change first?
- The image size
- The quality of the image
- The tray settings
- The file type
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a printout is being cut off, CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) troubleshooting emphasizes
checking the simplest, most likely configuration mismatch first—the printer’s paper size/source
settings. Even if the user physically loaded the correct paper, the print job can still be formatted
incorrectly if the printer driver, application, or printer itself is set to use a different paper size or a
different tray. If the printer thinks it is using a smaller paper size (or a tray configured for smaller
paper), it may clip the printable area and truncate the image at the edges.
Changing tray settings (paper size and paper source) aligns the printer’s configuration with the actual
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media installed, which is a standard first-step for issues related to formatting, clipping, and page
boundaries. Image quality (DPI) affects sharpness, not cropping. File type rarely causes consistent
edge cutoff compared with page setup mismatches. Adjusting image size could work as a
workaround, but CompTIA best practice is to correct the paper/tray and page setup settings first so
all prints format properly without editing the document each time.
Question: 406
A company requires a storage solution that combines performance and redundancy for a main
database server with high levels of read/write operations. Which of the following storage
configurations best meets these requirements?
- RAID 0
- RAID 5
- RAID 6
- RAID 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
For a main database server with high read/write activity, the best RAID choice must deliver strong
performance while still providing fault tolerance. Per CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) storage/RAID
objectives, RAID 10 (1+0) combines disk mirroring (RAID 1) and disk striping (RAID 0). Striping
improves performance by distributing read/write operations across multiple disks, which is ideal for
databases that perform frequent transactions. Mirroring provides redundancy by keeping an
identical copy of data on a paired drive, allowing the system to tolerate drive failures (typically one
drive per mirrored pair) without data loss.
RAID 0 is fast but offers no redundancy, making it inappropriate for critical servers. RAID 5 and RAID 6
use parity, which provides redundancy but introduces a write penalty because parity must be
calculated and written during updates—often a poor fit for workloads with heavy random writes like
databases. RAID 6 is even more write-intensive
Question: 407
A technician is building a custom CAD workstation with a high-end graphics card. The customer
requests that the system has the highest possible stability. Which of the following is the best choice
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for the power supply?
- UPS
- Redundant
- Surge protector
- Modular
Answer: B
Explanation:
For the highest possible stability, the best power-supply choice is a redundant power supply. In
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware concepts, redundant PSUs are used in systems where
uptime and reliability are critical. A redundant PSU configuration typically includes two power supply
units operating together (often in a hot-swappable bay). If one PSU fails, the other continues
supplying power, allowing the workstation to remain operational and preventing unexpected
shutdowns that could interrupt CAD work or corrupt data. This directly matches the requirement for
maximum stability.
A UPS improves resilience to power loss and brownouts by providing battery backup and line
conditioning, but it is not a power supply type and doesn’t protect against the PSU itself failing. A
surge protector helps guard against voltage spikes, but it also does not ensure system operation if
the PSU fails. A modular PSU mainly improves cable management and airflow by allowing detachable
cables; it can be convenient and neat, but it does not inherently increase stability compared with
redundancy. Therefore, the most stability-focused PSU option is Redundant.
Question: 408
A user’s computer is connected to a docking station at their desk. The user cannot access the
department file servers even though the docking station has a hardwired connection. Which of the
following steps should a technician take to restore the user’s access?
- Update the docking station firmware.
- Restart the computer.
- Disable Wi-Fi.
- Replace the Ethernet cable.
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Answer: C
Explanation:
In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking and troubleshooting, a common cause of “can’t reach
internal resources” while docked is that the laptop is still using the wireless interface (or has a higher
interface priority for Wi-Fi) instead of the docking station’s wired Ethernet connection. If the Wi-Fi
network is a guest/isolated VLAN, uses different routing, or has stricter access controls, the user may
be blocked from reaching department file servers even though an Ethernet cable is physically
connected to the dock. Disabling Wi-Fi is a fast, low-risk step that forces the system to use the wired
NIC path through the docking station, which typically provides the correct corporate network access,
DHCP scope, and routing to internal servers.
Restarting the computer might help in some cases, but it’s less targeted and not the “best next step”
when the likely issue is interface selection. Replacing the Ethernet cable is appropriate if link lights
are off or the wired connection is clearly down, but the scenario highlights that the dock has a
hardwired connection—suggesting the physical layer may be fine. Dock firmware updates are not a
first-line fix for basic connectivity/access symptoms.
Question: 409
A company’s directory services server is located on premises. Which of the following best describes
the directory services infrastructure?
- Hybrid cloud
- Private cloud
- Public cloud
- Community cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam objectives, cloud deployment models describe how and
where computing resources are hosted and who has access to them. A private cloud is defined as a
cloud environment that is dedicated to a single organization and may be hosted on-premises within
the company’s own data center or in a dedicated external facility. Since the question states that the
directory services server is located on premises, it indicates that the organization is hosting and
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managing its own infrastructure internally. This aligns directly with the definition of a private cloud
deployment model.
Directory services—such as Microsoft Active Directory or LDAP-based services—are commonly
deployed internally to manage user authentication, authorization, group policies, and resource
access within an organization. When these services run on company-owned hardware inside the
organization’s network, the infrastructure remains under the organization’s full administrative
control, security policies, and management.
The other options do not match this scenario. A public cloud is hosted by third-party providers and
shared among multiple customers ☁. A hybrid cloud combines on-premises infrastructure with
public cloud services. A community cloud is shared by multiple organizations with similar
requirements. Because the system is hosted internally for a single organization, the correct
classification is Private Cloud .
Question: 410
Which of the following is a characteristic of a Type 1 hypervisor?
- Host OS required
- Bare-metal server installation
- Lightweight OS
- Local configuration options
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization objectives, a Type 1 hypervisor is
known as a bare-metal hypervisor because it installs directly onto the physical hardware of a system
rather than running on top of a traditional operating system. This architecture allows the hypervisor
to manage hardware resources—such as CPU, memory, storage, and networking—without the
overhead of a host operating system. Because of this direct interaction with the hardware, Type 1
hypervisors typically provide higher performance, better scalability, and improved stability compared
to Type 2 hypervisors.
Examples of Type 1 hypervisors include VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V (bare-metal deployment),
and Citrix XenServer. These hypervisors are commonly used in enterprise data centers, cloud
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infrastructure, and large virtualization environments where multiple virtual machines must run
efficiently on a single physical server.
Option A (Host OS required) describes a Type 2 hypervisor, such as VMware Workstation or Oracle
VirtualBox, which runs on top of an existing operating system. Option C (Lightweight OS) may
describe some hypervisor environments but is not the defining characteristic. Option D (Local
configuration options) is also not specific to Type 1 hypervisors.
Therefore, the key characteristic that defines a Type 1 hypervisor is that it performs a bare-metal
server installation directly on the hardware
Question: 411
A help desk technician investigates a laser printer issue. Smudges are appearing on the printed
pages, but they are not present on the document that was sent to the printer. Which of the following
should the technician do first to diagnose the issue?
- Use a different kind of printing paper.
- Inspect the printer drum.
- Update the printer firmware.
- Replace the toner.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Because the smudges are not in the original document, CompTIA A+ troubleshooting logic indicates
the problem is occurring inside the print process, not in the application or file. For laser printers,
smudging commonly points to an issue with the imaging components—especially the
drum/photoconductor unit (and sometimes the fuser). A+ Core 1 (220-1201) printer troubleshooting
emphasizes starting with the most likely, easiest-to-verify causes before replacing parts. Inspecting
the drum is a diagnostic step that can reveal visible defects such as scratches, toner buildup,
contamination, or worn surfaces that cause toner to transfer incorrectly, leading to streaks or smears
on output.
Replacing the toner (D) is a corrective action and may be unnecessary if the drum is damaged.
Changing paper type (A) can help with some issues (like poor fusing or humidity-related problems),
but it’s less directly tied to consistent smudges caused by the imaging process. Firmware updates (C)
are rarely the first step for print-quality defects; they’re more relevant to compatibility, bugs, or
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feature issues—not physical smearing. Therefore, inspecting the printer drum first best matches A+
methodology and common laser printer failure points.
Question: 412
A company’s directory services server is located on premises. Which of the following best describes
the directory services infrastructure?
- Hybrid cloud
- Private cloud
- Public cloud
- Community cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) cloud concepts, the key differentiator between cloud deployment
models is where the service is hosted and who owns/uses the underlying infrastructure. If a
company’s directory services server (for example, a domain controller providing
authentication/authorization and centralized identity management) is located on premises, that
points to infrastructure that is owned and operated by the organization for its own internal use. This
aligns best with a private cloud model, which is defined as cloud resources dedicated to a single
organization and can be implemented on-premises (internally hosted) or in a dedicated off-site
environment.
It is not a public cloud because public cloud services are hosted by a third-party provider and shared
across multiple customers. It is not hybrid cloud because hybrid requires a mix of on-prem resources
and public cloud resources working together (the question only specifies on-prem). It is not
community cloud because that involves shared infrastructure among multiple organizations with
common needs.
Question: 413
Which of the following display technologies is known for offering the highest contrast ratios?
- LCD
- LED
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- OLED
- QLED
Answer: C
Explanation:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) display technology objectives emphasize that contrast ratio is
strongly influenced by how well a screen can produce true black. OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode)
panels are known for the highest contrast ratios because each pixel is self-emissive—meaning it
generates its own light. When an image requires black, OLED can turn individual pixels completely
off, producing near-perfect black levels and extremely high (often “infinite”) contrast in practical
terms.
By comparison, LCD panels require a backlight, so black areas still allow some light leakage through
the liquid crystal layer, reducing contrast. LED in this context is typically an LED-backlit LCD, not a
fundamentally different pixel technology; it improves brightness and efficiency but still relies on
backlighting, so contrast is limited by backlight bleed and panel design. QLED is also a type of LCD
technology that uses a quantum dot layer to enhance color and brightness, but it still uses a
backlight, so it cannot match OLED’s per-pixel shutoff for black levels. Therefore, OLED is the best
choice for the highest contrast ratios.
Question: 414
A company is separating its accounting department’s network from its customer service
department’s network. Which of the following will accomplish this task?
- VPN
- DNS
- VLAN
- DHCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is the correct solution because it logically separates devices into
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different broadcast domains on the same physical switching infrastructure. In CompTIA A+ Core 1
(220-1201), VLANs are described as a way to segment a network for security, performance, and
management—for example, isolating departments like Accounting and Customer Service so their
traffic is separated. Devices assigned to different VLANs cannot communicate directly at Layer 2;
communication between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device (such as a router or a Layer 3 switch) using
inter-VLAN routing and appropriate access control. This effectively prevents unnecessary broadcast
traffic from crossing department boundaries and helps enforce separation policies.
A VPN is used to create an encrypted tunnel over an untrusted network (commonly for remote
access or site-to-site connectivity), not for internal departmental segmentation. DNS resolves
hostnames to IP addresses and does not isolate networks. DHCP automatically assigns IP
configuration (IP address, gateway, DNS servers), but it does not provide segmentation by itself.
Therefore, implementing VLANs is the best way to separate the two departments’ networks.
Question: 415
Which of the following devices forwards data between different networks by analyzing the headers
of packets?
- Hub
- Router
- Repeater
- Unmanaged switch
Answer: B
Explanation:
A router is a network device that forwards data between different networks by examining packet
headers, specifically the IP address information contained in Layer 3 (Network Layer) of the OSI
model. According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, routers use routing
tables and packet header analysis to determine the best path for data to travel from a source
network to a destination network. When a packet arrives at a router interface, the router reads the
destination IP address in the packet header, compares it against its routing table, and then forwards
the packet to the appropriate next hop or network interface. This function allows routers to connect
multiple networks such as LANs, WANs, and the internet.
The other options do not perform this function. A hub operates at Layer 1 (Physical Layer) and simply
broadcasts incoming signals to all connected ports without inspecting any packet information. A
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repeater also operates at the physical layer and is used only to regenerate or amplify signals to
extend network distance. An unmanaged switch operates mainly at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) and
forwards frames based on MAC addresses, not IP packet headers. Because only routers analyze
packet headers and forward traffic between different networks, Router is the correct answer.
Question: 416
Which of the following is a characteristic to consider when selecting a satellite internet connection?
- Necessary proximity to urban infrastructure
- eSIM requirement
- Line of sight to nearby tower
- Increased latency
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking concepts, satellite internet is commonly associated
with higher (increased) latency compared with terrestrial options like cable, fiber, or DSL. Latency is
the delay between sending data and receiving a response. With satellite, signals must travel from the
user’s dish up to a satellite and then back down to a ground station (and return again for responses).
That long travel distance adds noticeable delay, which can affect real-time activities such as VoIP,
video conferencing, and online gaming. Even though newer low-earth-orbit (LEO) systems can
reduce latency compared with older geostationary systems, satellite service is still generally
discussed in A+ as having higher latency characteristics to consider.
The other options do not best fit satellite internet. Proximity to urban infrastructure (A) is more
relevant to cable/fiber availability. An eSIM requirement (B) relates to cellular/mobile service, not
satellite broadband. Line of sight to a nearby tower (C) describes cellular or fixed wireless services
that depend on tower connectivity; satellite instead needs a clear view of the sky toward the satellite
(not a nearby tower). Therefore, increased latency is the best characteristic to consider.
Question: 417
A technician is migrating an application server to another server. Which of the following DNS records
should the technician create to ensure seamless connectivity?
- TXT
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- SPF
- DKIM
- CNAME
Answer: D
Explanation:
To ensure seamless connectivity during (and after) migrating an application server, the best DNS
approach in CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) terms is to use a CNAME (Canonical Name) record, which
creates an alias from one hostname to another. Instead of users connecting directly to a server’s
changing hostname, they connect to a consistent service name (for example, app.company.com).
That name can be configured as a CNAME pointing to the current host (such as
server1.company.com). When the application is moved to a new server, the technician updates what
the alias ultimately resolves to (or updates the target host’s A/AAAA record), and clients continue
using the same familiar application URL/name—minimizing disruption and avoiding the need to
reconfigure endpoints across devices.
The other record types are not designed for this purpose. TXT records store text-based information
(often verification or policy data). SPF and DKIM are email authentication-related mechanisms
(typically implemented via TXT records) used to validate authorized mail senders and message
integrity—not application server migration. Because the goal is maintaining a stable name for a
service while the underlying host changes, CNAME is the correct record type.
Question: 418
Which of the following supports the most devices due to its status as a legacy technology?
- 2.4GHz
- 5GHz
- 6GHz
- NFC
Answer: A
Explanation:
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The correct answer is A. 2.4GHz.
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 networking objectives, wireless networking technologies include
frequency bands such as 2.4GHz, 5GHz, and 6GHz, along with related concepts like channels,
regulations, channel selection, Bluetooth, 802.11 standards, NFC, and RFID.
The 2.4GHz band supports the most devices because it is the oldest and most widely adopted Wi-Fi
frequency listed. Many legacy devices, including older laptops, printers, IoT devices, smart home
devices, and wireless peripherals, still rely on 2.4GHz. It also has better range and wall penetration
than higher-frequency bands, although it is usually more crowded and slower.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . 5GHz
5GHz is newer than 2.4GHz and generally provides faster speeds with less interference, but it does
not support as many older legacy devices.
C . 6GHz
6GHz is the newest Wi-Fi frequency option used with newer Wi-Fi standards, so it has the least
legacy device support among the Wi-Fi frequency choices.
D . NFC
NFC is a short-range communication technology, not a Wi-Fi frequency band. It is used for closeproximity functions such as tap-to-pay, pairing, and access cards, so it is not the best answer.
Final Answe r: A. 2.4GHz
Question: 419
Which of the following is the best option to maintain a stable, tethered connection between a cell
phone and a laptop?
- Bluetooth
- USB
- Hotspot
- NFC
Answer: B
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Explanation:
The correct answer is B. USB.
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives under mobile devices and connectivity methods,
tethering refers to sharing a mobile device’s internet connection with another device such as a
laptop. There are several tethering methods, including USB tethering, Bluetooth tethering, and Wi-Fi
hotspot.
USB tethering is considered the most stable and reliable (tethered) connection because:
It uses a physical cable connection, eliminating wireless interference.
It provides consistent bandwidth and low latency.
It also charges the phone while connected, which is an added benefit.
It is less prone to disconnections compared to wireless methods.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Bluetooth
Bluetooth tethering is slower and less stable due to limited bandwidth and susceptibility to
interference. It is not ideal for high-performance or stable connections.
C . Hotspot
A mobile hotspot uses Wi-Fi, which is wireless, not tethered. While convenient, it is less stable than a
wired USB connection and can be affected by interference and signal range.
D . NFC
NFC (Near Field Communication) is used for very short-range communication like payments or quick
pairing. It is not used for maintaining a continuous network connection.
Final Answe r: B. USB
Question: 420
Which of the following RAM characteristics allows for recovery from data faults in memory modules?
- Capacity
- Speed
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- ECC
- DDR
- Parity
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. ECC (Error-Correcting Code).
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware objectives, RAM types and features include
technologies designed to improve reliability and data integrity.
ECC memory is specifically designed to detect and correct data errors (faults) in memory
automatically. It uses additional bits to store error-checking information, allowing the system to:
Detect single-bit and some multi-bit errors
Automatically correct errors without system interruption
Improve system stability, especially in servers and critical systems
This makes ECC the best choice for recovering from data faults.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Capacity
Capacity refers to how much data the RAM can hold (e.g., 8GB, 16GB). It has nothing to do with error
detection or correction.
B . Speed
Speed (measured in MHz or MT/s) affects performance but does not provide any fault recovery
capability.
D . DDR
DDR (Double Data Rate) refers to the generation/type of RAM (e.g., DDR3, DDR4, DDR5). It improves
performance but does not handle errors.
E . Parity
Parity memory can detect errors but cannot correct them. Since the question specifically asks for
recovery from faults, ECC is the correct answer because it both detects and corrects errors.
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Final Answe r: C. ECC
Question: 421
A company needs to print several copies of a multipage document with the least consumption of
resources possible. Which of the following settings will best accomplish this task?
- Duplex
- Orientation
- Tray settings
- Quality
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Duplex.
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam objectives under printer settings and configuration,
duplex printing refers to printing on both sides of the paper automatically.
Using duplex printing is the best way to reduce resource consumption because:
It cuts paper usage in half, which is the primary resource being conserved.
It is ideal for multi-page documents and multiple copies.
It reduces physical storage and handling requirements.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Orientation
Orientation (portrait or landscape) changes the layout of the document but does not reduce resource
usage.
C . Tray settings
Tray settings determine which paper tray is used (e.g., plain paper, letterhead), but they do not
impact resource consumption.
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D . Quality
Print quality (draft, normal, high) may affect ink/toner usage, but it does not reduce paper
consumption as effectively as duplex printing, which is the main resource concern in this scenario.
Final Answe r: A. Duplex
Question: 422
A company rolls out a mandatory OS update to all PCs. A legacy application that one department
uses does not function on the new OS and is EOL. Which of the following should a technician suggest
to solve the issue with minimal data loss, expense, and disruption to the users?
- Setting up a bare-metal hypervisor to isolate the outdated OS
- Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor
- Upgrading to an alternative product and importing the data
- Uploading the database to a private cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor.
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives, virtualization is a key concept for maintaining
compatibility with legacy systems. A Type 2 hypervisor (hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an existing
operating system and allows users to run a virtual machine (VM) with an older OS.
This solution is ideal because:
It allows the legacy application to run in its required OS environment.
It avoids replacing the application (which could cause data loss or compatibility issues).
It is cost-effective, as it uses existing hardware.
It minimizes user disruption, since users can continue using the application within a VM.
Why the other options are incorrect:
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A . Setting up a bare-metal hypervisor
A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor is more complex, costly, and disruptive. It typically requires
dedicating hardware and is not ideal for a single department use case.
C . Upgrading to an alternative product and importing the data
Although this may be a long-term solution, it involves higher cost, potential data loss, retraining, and
disruption.
D . Uploading the database to a private cloud
This does not solve the compatibility issue of the legacy application with the new OS.
Final Answe r: B. Moving to a supported system under a Type 2 hypervisor
Question: 423
Which of the following RAM characteristics allows for the most data bandwidth?
- CAS latency
- ECC
- High clock speed
- Dual channel
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Dual channel.
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware objectives, memory bandwidth refers to the amount
of data that can be transferred between RAM and the CPU in a given amount of time.
Dual channel memory architecture increases bandwidth by:
Allowing the memory controller to access two memory modules simultaneously
Effectively doubling the data transfer rate compared to single-channel configurations
Improving overall system performance, especially in memory-intensive tasks
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Why the other options are incorrect:
A . CAS latency
CAS latency measures the delay before data is available after a request. Lower latency improves
response time, but it does not significantly increase total bandwidth.
B . ECC
ECC (Error-Correcting Code) improves reliability by detecting and correcting errors, but it does not
increase data transfer bandwidth.
C . High clock speed
Higher clock speed does increase bandwidth, but not as significantly as enabling dual channel, which
allows parallel data transfer paths and provides a greater overall increase.
Final Answe r: D. Dual channel
Question: 424
Which of the following video cables uses an analog signal?
- DVI
- VGA
- USB-C
- HDMI
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. VGA.
VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an analog video interface. It transmits video signals as continuous
electrical waves, which means the signal can degrade over distance or due to interference. VGA uses
a 15-pin connector and is considered legacy hardware in modern systems, but it is still important for
CompTIA A+ because you may encounter it in older equipment.
Why the other options are incorrect:
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A . DVI
DVI can support both digital and analog signals, but in most modern contexts and exam questions, it
is primarily treated as a digital interface (especially DVI-D). Since the question asks for a clearly
analog cable, VGA is the best answer.
C . USB-C
USB-C is a digital interface that can carry video signals using protocols like DisplayPort Alternate
Mode. It does not transmit analog video.
D . HDMI
HDMI is a fully digital interface used for high-definition video and audio transmission. It does not
support analog signals.
Exam Tip (Core 1 220-1201):
Analog video = VGA
Digital video = HDMI, DisplayPort, USB-C, most DVI types
Final Answe r: B. VGA
Question: 425
An employee is on a business trip and needs to upload daily conferences and meetings to the
company’s intranet. The uploading process is successful but was faster in the past.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for the slowdown?
- Wireless is turned off.
- 5G is disabled.
- Roaming is turned on.
- Data is being throttled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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The correct answer is D. Data is being throttled.
Data throttling refers to the intentional slowing down of internet speeds by a mobile carrier after a
user reaches a certain data usage limit or during network congestion. In this scenario, the employee
can still successfully upload files, but the speed has decreased compared to before—this is a classic
symptom of throttling.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Wireless is turned off
If wireless were turned off, the employee would not be able to upload anything at all. The question
clearly states that uploads are still successful.
B . 5G is disabled
Disabling 5G could reduce speeds slightly if the device falls back to 4G/LTE, but it would not typically
cause a significant or noticeable degradation unless compared under ideal conditions. It is not the
most likely cause.
C . Roaming is turned on
Roaming allows connectivity outside the home network. While it may incur additional charges, it
does not inherently cause significant speed reduction in most modern networks. It is less likely than
throttling.
Exam Tip (Core 1 220-1201):
Slow but working connection → Think throttling or congestion
No connection → Think disabled wireless or network issues
Final Answe r: D. Data is being throttled
Question: 426
A company updates its office with a new multifunction printer. Users report issues when they try to
use scan-to-email functionality. The technician must ensure this feature is properly enabled. Which
of the following should the technician do to resolve this issue?
- Adjust the SMTP server configurations for email.
- Check the printer’s IP address configuration.
- Install the printer’s driver software on all computers.
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- Configure user authentication settings for email access.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Adjust the SMTP server configurations for email.
Scan-to-email functionality on a multifunction printer relies on proper configuration of an SMTP
(Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) server. The printer must know how to send outgoing email, which
requires settings such as:
SMTP server address
Port number (commonly 25, 465, or 587)
Authentication credentials (username/password)
Encryption method (SSL/TLS if required)
If scan-to-email is not working, the most common cause is incorrect or missing SMTP configuration.
Without this setup, the printer cannot send scanned documents via email.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Check the printer’s IP address configuration
This ensures network connectivity, but since the printer is already in use and the issue is specific to
email functionality, IP configuration is unlikely the root cause.
C . Install the printer’s driver software on all computers
Drivers are needed for printing from computers, but scan-to-email is handled directly by the printer
and does not depend on client-side drivers.
D . Configure user authentication settings for email access
While authentication may be required in some setups, it is part of the broader SMTP configuration.
The primary and most direct fix is ensuring SMTP settings are correct.
Exam Tip (Core 1 220-1201):
Scan-to-email issues → Check SMTP settings first
Multifunction printers rely on network services (email protocols), not just drivers
Final Answe r: A. Adjust the SMTP server configurations for email
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Question: 427
A client requests a new computer for high-performance video editing and virtual reality applications.
The technician must select a compatible motherboard for an Intel Core i9 processor and multiple
graphics cards. Which of the following should the technician do to meet the client’s needs?
- Choose a cooling system capable of handling high thermal output.
- Use DDR3 RAM for increased compatibility.
- Verify there are two PCIe x1 slots for additional devices.
- Select a motherboard with integrated graphics to support video output.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best answer provided is A, although it is important to note that the question is somewhat
misleading because it asks about motherboard selection but provides mostly incorrect or irrelevant
motherboard-related options.
For high-performance workloads such as video editing and virtual reality (VR) using an Intel Core i9
processor and multiple graphics cards (multi-GPU setup), system design considerations include high
power consumption and significant heat output. In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives
under hardware planning and troubleshooting, high-performance CPUs and multiple GPUs require
adequate thermal management solutions, including advanced cooling systems (air or liquid cooling)
to ensure system stability and prevent thermal throttling.
Why A is the best answer:
High-end CPUs like Intel Core i9 and multiple GPUs generate substantial heat.
Proper cooling is essential for maintaining performance under sustained load (video rendering, VR
workloads).
While not strictly a motherboard feature, cooling is a critical system requirement for such a build.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Use DDR3 RAM for increased compatibility
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Incorrect because modern Intel Core i9 platforms use DDR4 or DDR5, not DDR3, which is obsolete
and incompatible with current high-performance motherboards.
C . Verify there are two PCIe x1 slots for additional devices
Incorrect because PCIe x1 slots are used for low-bandwidth devices (sound cards, network cards), not
graphics cards.
Multiple GPUs require PCIe x16 slots, not x1.
D . Select a motherboard with integrated graphics to support video output
Incorrect because high-performance systems with discrete GPUs rely on those GPUs for rendering.
Integrated graphics are unnecessary and sometimes disabled when a dedicated GPU is installed.
Exam Insight (CompTIA A+ perspective):
In real-world A+ Core 1 scenarios, the correct motherboard selection for this requirement would
focus on:
Multiple PCIe x16 slots (for multi-GPU support)
Compatible socket for Intel Core i9
Support for modern RAM (DDR4/DDR5)
Adequate chipset and power delivery (VRM design)
Proper cooling solution for thermal management
However, since those correct motherboard specifications are not provided in the options, A is the
only viable system-level requirement relevant to stability under high-performance load.
Question: 428
Which of the following is used to implement PoE?
- Modem
- Range extender
- Media converter
- Injector
Answer: D
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Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Injector.
Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows network cables to carry electrical power to devices such as
wireless access points, IP cameras, and VoIP phones, eliminating the need for separate power
supplies. According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking, PoE can be
implemented in the following ways:
PoE-enabled switches: Switches that can supply power directly over the Ethernet ports.
PoE injectors: Devices that add power to an existing Ethernet connection when the switch or router
does not provide PoE.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Modem: A modem connects a network to the Internet but does not provide PoE functionality.
B . Range extender: Extends the range of a wireless network; does not supply power over Ethernet.
C . Media converter: Converts one type of network media to another (e.g., fiber to copper) but does
not implement PoE.
Therefore, when a switch does not natively provide PoE, a PoE injector is the standard solution to
add power to the Ethernet line.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, install and
configure network devices including switches, routers, and wireless access points, including cabling
and PoE.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Networking Devices Chapter.
Question: 429
After a data breach, an affected file server is reimaged and must have the data restored. The server
array is configured as RAID 6. The technician restoring the data notices that the data transfer is
sluggish and restarts the server. After restarting the server, the technician continues the restore
process and sees one red LED in the drive array. Which of the following should the technician do next
to remediate the issue?
- Reconfigure the RAID array
- Run a S.M.A.R.T. test
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- Reinstall the controller drivers
- Replace the failed drive
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Replace the failed drive.
RAID 6 is a redundant array of independent disks that can tolerate up to two drive failures while still
maintaining data integrity. According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives, a red LED on a
drive in a RAID array indicates that the drive has failed or is in a critical state.
Next Step: In RAID 6, a single failed drive should be replaced immediately to prevent additional
failures and maintain redundancy. The array can continue to operate in a degraded state, but
performance may be slow during rebuilds. Replacing the failed drive allows the RAID controller to
rebuild data onto the new drive, restoring full redundancy.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Reconfigure the RAID array: This would erase existing data; unnecessary if only one drive failed.
B . Run a S.M.A.R.T. test: While useful for diagnosing drive health, the red LED already indicates
failure, so immediate replacement is required.
C . Reinstall the controller drivers: This does not address a physically failed drive and would not fix
the degraded RAID array.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot storage
and RAID issues including failed drives and degraded arrays.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Storage Devices and RAID.
Question: 430
When a customer tries to connect a projector to a laptop in a conference room, the customer is only
able to see part of the laptop’s screen projected onto the wall. Which of the following should a
technician do first to troubleshoot this issue?
- Extend the desktop
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- Change the resolution
- Mirror the desktop
- Switch the input source
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Change the resolution.
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives, troubleshooting display issues involves
checking the display settings, including resolution, scaling, and orientation. When a projector is only
showing part of a laptop screen:
The most common cause is that the laptop’s output resolution does not match the projector’s native
resolution. If the laptop is set to a resolution larger than what the projector supports, only a portion
of the screen is visible.
The technician should first adjust the laptop’s resolution to match the projector’s native resolution
before attempting other options like extending or mirroring the desktop.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Extend the desktop: This is only used if the user wants to have two separate screens (dual
monitors), not to fix partial display issues.
C . Mirror the desktop: Mirroring duplicates the laptop display but does not solve issues caused by
resolution mismatch.
D . Switch the input source: Necessary only if the projector is on the wrong input, but the problem
here is a partial display, not no display.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot
problems related to displays including resolution and projector issues.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Display Devices.
Question: 431
Which of the following describes the difference between routers and switches?
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- Routers are programmable; switches are not programmable.
- Switches connect devices within a network; routers connect networks.
- Switches are programmable; routers are not programmable.
- Routers connect devices within a network; switches connect networks.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Switches connect devices within a network; routers connect networks.
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 networking objectives:
Switches operate at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) and sometimes Layer 3, connecting multiple devices
within the same local area network (LAN). They manage data traffic between devices by using MAC
addresses to forward frames only to the intended recipient.
Routers operate at the Network layer (Layer 3) and connect different networks together, such as
connecting a LAN to the internet. They use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding
packets between networks.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Routers are programmable; switches are not programmable: Both devices can have
programmable configurations in enterprise environments, so this is not a defining difference.
C . Switches are programmable; routers are not programmable: Same reasoning as above; not
accurate.
D . Routers connect devices within a network; switches connect networks: This reverses the actual
roles and is incorrect.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, install and
configure network devices including switches and routers and describe their primary functions.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Networking Devices.
Question: 432
Which of the following connections would be used to send a print job from a mobile device to a
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wireless multifunction printer (MFP)?
- NFC
- Hotspot
- Infrared
- USB
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. NFC (Near Field Communication).
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices, NFC is commonly
used for short-range wireless communication between devices. In the context of mobile printing:
NFC-enabled printers allow a user to tap a mobile device (phone or tablet) to the printer to initiate a
print job instantly without needing to configure Wi-Fi credentials or use cables.
This is particularly common in mobile-friendly environments like offices or public kiosks.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Hotspot: Provides an Internet connection, not a direct mobile-to-printer interface.
C . Infrared: Legacy technology largely replaced by NFC and Wi-Fi; rarely used in modern printers.
D . USB: Requires a wired connection, not suitable for sending a print job wirelessly from a mobile
device.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Mobile Devices: “Given a scenario, connect and
configure mobile devices including printing via NFC, Bluetooth, and Wi-Fi.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Mobile Device Connectivity.
Question: 433
Which of the following is primarily used to connect different networks?
- Controller
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- Bridge
- Hub
- Router
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Router.
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives for Networking, routers are devices that
operate at Layer 3 (Network layer) and are primarily used to connect multiple networks, including
LANs, WANs, and the Internet. Routers use IP addressing to determine the best path for forwarding
packets between networks.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Controller: Generally refers to a device that manages a network or hardware component but does
not inherently connect different networks.
B . Bridge: Connects two segments of the same network, not different networks, and operates at
Layer 2 (Data Link layer).
C . Hub: Connects devices within the same network segment, simply repeating signals, and does not
perform routing between networks.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, install and
configure network devices including routers, switches, and access points.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Networking Devices Chapter.
Question: 434
A technician adds the NTP service to a server and configures all network computers to that service.
Which of the following is the technician most likely trying to achieve?
- Defined network transport protocols
- Enabled print services on the server
- Synchronized system clocks
Questions and Answers PDF 388/419
- Defined server options in DHCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Synchronized system clocks.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Server Services, NTP
(Network Time Protocol) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers across a network to a
common time source. This is critical for:
Ensuring accurate timestamps for logs and events.
Coordinating scheduled tasks across multiple systems.
Preventing authentication issues in environments that rely on time-based credentials (e.g.,
Kerberos).
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Defined network transport protocols: NTP itself is a protocol that uses UDP, but its primary
purpose is not defining transport protocols.
B . Enabled print services on the server: NTP does not relate to printing.
D . Defined server options in DHCP: NTP may be referenced by DHCP options, but the act of adding
NTP to a server is focused on time synchronization, not DHCP configuration.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, configure services
and settings on network devices including NTP for time synchronization.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Networking Services.
Question: 435
Which of the following is used to assign an IP address to a network PC?
- VLAN
- DNS
- DHCP
Questions and Answers PDF 389/419
- TCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:
DHCP is used to automatically assign IP addresses and related network configuration (such as subnet
mask, default gateway, and DNS servers) to devices on a network.
This eliminates the need for manually configuring IP addresses on each PC and helps prevent
conflicts.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network): VLANs segment a network into logical subnets but do not
assign IP addresses.
B . DNS (Domain Name System): DNS translates domain names to IP addresses; it does not assign IP
addresses to devices.
D . TCP (Transmission Control Protocol): TCP is a transport layer protocol used for reliable
communication between devices, not for IP assignment.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, configure TCP/IP,
including DHCP, static addressing, and subnetting.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Networking Protocols and IP
Addressing.
Question: 436
Which of the following can be used by a mobile device to access a secure building?
- Hotspot
- Near-field communication
- Infrared scanner
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- Geolocation
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Near-field communication (NFC).
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Security:
NFC is commonly used for secure access control. Many organizations implement NFC-enabled ID
badges or mobile devices to unlock doors, gates, or secure areas.
The mobile device communicates over a very short range (a few centimeters) with a reader to
authenticate the user.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Hotspot: Provides internet access, not physical building access.
C . Infrared scanner: While used in some legacy devices, it is not commonly implemented for secure
mobile access.
D . Geolocation: Can provide location awareness but does not grant direct access to secure physical
spaces.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Mobile Devices: “Given a scenario, configure
mobile device features including secure access and authentication methods such as NFC and
Bluetooth.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Mobile Device Security and
Access Control.
Question: 437
Which of the following is a key characteristic of cloud computing that ensures resources are
dynamically distributed to meet varying workloads?
- Hybrid deployment
- Elasticity
- Multitenancy
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- Metered utilization
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Elasticity.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Cloud Concepts:
Elasticity refers to the cloud computing capability to automatically allocate and deallocate resources
based on current demand. This ensures that applications have the necessary compute, storage, and
network capacity during peak loads, and resources can be scaled down when demand decreases,
optimizing efficiency and cost.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Hybrid deployment: Refers to using a combination of public and private clouds; it does not
describe dynamic resource allocation.
C . Multitenancy: Describes the architecture where multiple users share the same infrastructure
securely.
D . Metered utilization: Refers to charging based on resource consumption; it is a billing mechanism,
not a dynamic allocation feature.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, explain cloud
computing concepts including elasticity, multitenancy, and hybrid deployment.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Cloud Computing Concepts.
Question: 438
Which of the following virtualization concepts is suitable for a development team that requires a
bare minimum platform to run web applications with the capability to dispose and redeploy as
needed?
- Containers
- IaaS
- SaaS
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- Desktop virtualization
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Containers.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Cloud/Virtualization
Concepts:
Containers provide lightweight, portable environments that package applications and their
dependencies, allowing them to run consistently across multiple environments.
Containers are ideal for development teams because they require minimal underlying infrastructure,
can be quickly deployed or destroyed, and isolate applications from the host system, making it easier
to manage multiple applications simultaneously.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): Provides virtualized hardware over the cloud but is more
general-purpose; it includes virtual machines, storage, and networking, not minimal isolated
application environments.
C . SaaS (Software as a Service): Provides fully managed software to end-users; not intended for
deploying custom web applications by a development team.
D . Desktop virtualization: Provides virtual desktop environments to users; it does not provide a
minimal, disposable platform for web application development.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Cloud and Virtualization: “Given a scenario,
explain virtualization concepts including containers, IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Virtualization and Cloud
Computing.
Question: 439
Which of the following storage devices is most suitable for quick data access and retrieval speeds on
a laptop?
- SATA M.2
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- NVMe SSD
- Optical disk
- 7,200rpm HDD
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. NVMe SSD.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Storage:
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) SSDs provide the fastest data access and retrieval speeds
compared to other storage types, especially on laptops. NVMe SSDs use the PCIe interface, which
allows significantly higher throughput and lower latency than SATA-based storage.
This improves boot times, application load times, and overall system responsiveness.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . SATA M.2: While faster than traditional 2.5” SSDs and HDDs, SATA M.2 is limited by the SATA III
interface (~600 MB/s), which is slower than NVMe SSDs (~3,000–7,000 MB/s).
C . Optical disk: Optical media (CD/DVD/Blu-ray) is extremely slow and not suitable for quick access
or retrieval.
D . 7,200rpm HDD: Mechanical hard drives have the slowest access times and throughput compared
to SSDs.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Storage: “Given a scenario, install and configure
storage devices including SSDs and NVMe drives.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Storage Devices.
Question: 440
A technician is attaching additional internal USB ports to a motherboard. In which of the following
locations will the technician most likely connect these ports?
- TPM
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- Header pinouts
- M.2 connector
- Expansion slots
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Header pinouts.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware:
Header pinouts on a motherboard are designated connectors for internal components such as USB
ports, audio connectors, and front panel buttons/LEDs.
When adding additional internal USB ports, a technician typically connects them to the
motherboard’s USB header pinouts. These headers provide the necessary data and power
connections to enable USB functionality for front-panel or expansion USB ports.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . TPM (Trusted Platform Module): Used for hardware-based security functions like encryption, not
USB connectivity.
C . M.2 connector: Used primarily for SSDs and other small-form-factor expansion devices, not
standard USB ports.
D . Expansion slots: Typically PCIe or PCI slots are used for expansion cards such as GPUs, network
cards, or USB controller cards, but not for connecting internal USB headers directly.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, install and configure
motherboards and internal components including headers and USB ports.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Motherboards and Internal
Connectors.
Question: 441
An administrator must configure a server that prioritizes data availability. Because the server will be
accessed by many users, the administrator must also consider performance. Which of the following
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RAID levels best meets these requirements within a single array?
- 1
- 0
- 5
- 10
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. RAID 10 (also called RAID 1+0).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Storage:
RAID 10 combines the mirroring of RAID 1 with the striping of RAID 0. This provides both high data
availability (because each drive has a mirror) and improved performance (because data is striped
across multiple disks).
RAID 10 requires a minimum of four drives and is suitable for servers that handle high I/O workloads
while maintaining redundancy.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . RAID 1: Provides mirroring for redundancy but does not improve performance as effectively as
RAID 10.
B . RAID 0: Provides striping for performance but has no redundancy; a single drive failure results in
data loss.
C . RAID 5: Provides parity and can tolerate one drive failure with decent read performance, but write
performance is lower than RAID 10 and rebuilds can impact system performance under heavy load.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Storage: “Given a scenario, configure RAID levels
to balance performance, availability, and redundancy.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on RAID and Storage Arrays.
Question: 442
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A technician is configuring an organization’s managed switch to prevent other users on the same
switch from accessing the accounting department. Which of the following should the technician
configure to accomplish this task?
- Virtual LAN
- DHCP reservations
- Content filtering
- Port security
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Virtual LAN (VLAN).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:
VLANs are used to segment a physical network into multiple logical networks. By assigning the
accounting department to a separate VLAN, users on other VLANs cannot access its network traffic
without routing, thereby isolating sensitive departments while using the same physical switch.
VLANs improve security, reduce broadcast traffic, and allow network administrators to enforce access
controls at the layer 2 level.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . DHCP reservations: Ensure that specific devices always receive the same IP address, but do not
restrict network access.
C . Content filtering: Controls web or application traffic based on content, not segmenting network
access between departments.
D . Port security: Limits which devices can connect to a port but does not provide full network
segmentation for an entire department.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, configure network
devices and settings including VLANs to isolate traffic and enhance security.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Network Segmentation and
VLANs.
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Question: 443
After a laptop display panel was replaced recently, the laptop has had difficulty staying connected to
Wi-Fi. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
- The internal antenna has been damaged
- Airplane mode is enabled
- The inverter is not connected
- The wireless drivers have not been updated
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. The internal antenna has been damaged.
According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Networking:
Many laptop Wi-Fi antennas are embedded in the display panel and connected via small cables to
the wireless card on the motherboard.
If the display panel is replaced and the Wi-Fi antenna is disconnected, damaged, or improperly
routed, the laptop will experience weak or intermittent Wi-Fi connectivity.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Airplane mode is enabled: Would completely disable wireless radios; the question specifies
difficulty staying connected, not a total lack of connectivity.
C . The inverter is not connected: The inverter powers the backlight of the display, unrelated to
wireless connectivity.
D . The wireless drivers have not been updated: While outdated drivers can cause connectivity
issues, a sudden problem after a display replacement strongly points to physical antenna damage.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Mobile Devices: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot
mobile device connectivity including Wi-Fi, antennas, and wireless drivers.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Laptop Wireless Networking
and Hardware Issues.
Questions and Answers PDF 398/419
Question: 444
Which of the following cable types is a video-only connection?
- DisplayPort
- HDMI
- USB-C
- DVI
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. DVI (Digital Visual Interface).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Display Technologies:
DVI is primarily a video-only interface that transmits digital or analog video signals from a source
(like a computer) to a display.
Unlike HDMI or USB-C, DVI does not carry audio signals, making it strictly for video.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . DisplayPort: Supports video and audio as well as other features such as daisy-chaining multiple
monitors.
B . HDMI: Transmits both video and audio signals over a single cable.
C . USB-C: Can carry data, power, and video/audio signals depending on the device and protocol
(e.g., DisplayPort Alt Mode).
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, install and configure
display devices and connections including VGA, DVI, HDMI, DisplayPort, and USB-C.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Video Connectors and
Display Technologies.
Questions and Answers PDF 399/419
Question: 445
A specialist needs to configure a computer so that it will not boot up using any non-trusted or
unsigned external devices that are connected to the computer. Which of the following should the
specialist configure?
- BIOS password
- Secure Boot
- USB settings
- Single sign-on
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Secure Boot.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Security:
Secure Boot is a UEFI firmware feature that ensures a computer boots only with software that is
trusted and digitally signed by the manufacturer.
This prevents malicious or unauthorized bootloaders and operating systems from loading, protecting
the system from rootkits and other boot-time attacks.
Secure Boot does not require disabling USB devices; it simply checks that any bootable device
contains a signed operating system.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . BIOS password: Protects access to BIOS/UEFI settings but does not verify trusted software during
boot.
C . USB settings: Can control USB access but cannot enforce boot validation for signed OS or prevent
unauthorized boot devices.
D . Single sign-on: Provides authentication convenience for users, unrelated to boot security.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Security: “Given a scenario, configure security
settings including Secure Boot to protect against unauthorized boot and malware attacks.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Security and UEFI/BIOS
Questions and Answers PDF 400/419
Protection.
Question: 446
Which of the following is most commonly used to increase 802.11 wireless throughput speed?
- Licensed bands
- Maximum transmission unit
- Transmit power
- Channel width
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Channel width.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Wireless:
Channel width refers to the size of the frequency band used for Wi-Fi communication.
Increasing channel width (e.g., from 20 MHz to 40 MHz, 80 MHz, or 160 MHz) allows more data to be
transmitted at once, effectively increasing wireless throughput speed.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Licensed bands: Licensed spectrum is used for certain types of communication and does not
directly increase Wi-Fi throughput.
B . Maximum transmission unit (MTU): MTU defines the largest packet size transmitted over a
network but is not the primary factor for increasing Wi-Fi throughput.
C . Transmit power: Adjusting transmit power affects signal range and coverage but does not
significantly increase throughput; it may improve connectivity but not data rates.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot and
configure wireless settings including channel selection, transmit power, and frequency bands.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Wireless Networking.
Questions and Answers PDF 401/419
Question: 447
A server that is crucial for daily operations is experiencing degraded performance. Upon
investigation, a technician sees that one of the drives in a RAID 5 configuration shows a failure alert.
The system must remain online during business hours, and the controller does not support hot
swapping. Which of the following should the technician do to solve the issue?
- Update the RAID controller firmware to support hot swapping
- Implement a software-based RAID solution
- Change the drive during off-peak hours
- Replace the drive with a cold-swappable drive
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Replace the drive with a cold-swappable drive.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Storage and RAID:
RAID 5 provides both data striping and parity for fault tolerance, but if the RAID controller does not
support hot swapping, replacing a failed drive while the system is running is not possible.
Cold-swappable drives are designed to be safely removed and replaced when the system is powered
down, which allows maintenance without damaging the array or system.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Update the RAID controller firmware to support hot swapping: Firmware updates may add hot
swap functionality, but this is not guaranteed and may require a system reboot.
B . Implement a software-based RAID solution: Software RAID requires a system reconfiguration and
downtime; it does not immediately resolve the degraded RAID 5 array.
C . Change the drive during off-peak hours: While feasible, this is essentially the same as using a
cold-swappable drive but is less precise; using cold-swappable drives ensures safe replacement
without downtime considerations.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Storage: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot RAID
Questions and Answers PDF 402/419
issues including failed drives, degraded arrays, and drive replacement procedures.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on RAID and Storage
Maintenance.
Question: 448
Which of the following technologies is the best way to reduce hardware costs in a data center by
allowing multiple operating systems to run on a single physical server?
- Containerization
- Cloud computing
- Virtualization
- Remote desktop services
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Virtualization.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking and Cloud/Virtualization
Concepts:
Virtualization allows a single physical server to host multiple virtual machines (VMs), each running its
own operating system and applications.
This reduces hardware costs because fewer physical servers are required to run multiple workloads,
and it improves resource utilization, scalability, and management.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Containerization: Optimizes application deployment by packaging applications and dependencies,
but containers share the host OS kernel and are not full OS instances.
B . Cloud computing: Refers to delivering computing services over the internet; it can use
virtualization but is broader and not specifically focused on reducing physical hardware.
D . Remote desktop services: Provides remote access to desktops or applications; it does not reduce
hardware requirements for hosting multiple OS environments.
Reference:
Questions and Answers PDF 403/419
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Cloud and Virtualization: “Explain virtualization
concepts including hypervisors, virtual machines, and cost reduction in data centers.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Virtualization and Cloud
Computing.
Question: 449
A user’s monitor shows strange colored lines and flickers when adjusting the brightness. The user
requires the device for daily professional tasks. Which of the following should a technician do to
effectively address the screen issue, given cost and urgency considerations?
- Suggest the user use a secondary monitor for essential tasks
- Conduct a factory reset to eliminate software issues
- Install a screen protector to minimize flickering
- Check for loose connections on the display
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Check for loose connections on the display.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Display Troubleshooting:
Flickering or strange colored lines on a monitor are often caused by loose or damaged video cable
connections (internal or external).
Before considering costly or time-consuming solutions like replacement, the technician should verify
that the display cable, internal ribbon cables, or connectors are properly seated.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Suggest a secondary monitor: Provides a temporary workaround but does not resolve the
underlying hardware issue.
B . Conduct a factory reset: Resets software settings but will not correct physical connection
problems that cause flickering or colored lines.
C . Install a screen protector: Does not affect video signal or display functionality; irrelevant for
flickering issues.
Questions and Answers PDF 404/419
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot display
problems including artifacts, flickering, color issues, and connectivity.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Display Troubleshooting.
Question: 450
A user receives a warning message on their tablet that states, “You are locked out due to unlawful
activity.” The user was shopping for clothes online. Which of the following should a technician try
first?
- Force close all running applications on the device
- Replace the tablet with a newer device
- Reset the device to default settings
- Restart the device
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Restart the device.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Security:
Warning messages like this can be caused by malicious pop-ups or temporary software glitches.
Restarting the device is the safest and quickest first step to clear temporary processes, refresh the
system, and remove transient malware or pop-up overlays.
This approach addresses the issue without risking data loss or unnecessary downtime.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Force close all running applications: May help if a specific app is causing the pop-up, but restarting
achieves this more reliably and fully resets background processes.
B . Replace the tablet with a newer device: Unnecessary and costly for a potentially temporary
software issue.
C . Reset the device to default settings: This is a last-resort action, as it erases personal data and
settings; it is not the first step.
Questions and Answers PDF 405/419
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Mobile Devices: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot
mobile device issues including pop-ups, malware warnings, and temporary system glitches.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Mobile Device
Troubleshooting.
Question: 451
A financial institution’s application sends a notification to customers when a nearby store accepts
contactless payments. Which of the following should be enabled so the application works as
intended? (Select two)
- MDM
- Contact syncing
- Bluetooth
- Hotspot
- NFC
- Location services
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
The correct answers are E. NFC and F. Location services.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Security:
NFC (Near-Field Communication): Enables the device to communicate with contactless payment
terminals, which is essential for detecting nearby stores that accept contactless payments.
Location services: Allows the application to determine the user’s geographic location so it can
provide notifications only when the user is near a participating store.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . MDM (Mobile Device Management): Manages device policies but does not enable location-based
notifications or contactless payments.
Questions and Answers PDF 406/419
B . Contact syncing: Synchronizes contacts; unrelated to payment notifications.
C . Bluetooth: Can be used for some proximity services, but NFC is required for contactless payment
detection.
D . Hotspot: Provides internet access; not required for proximity detection in this context.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Mobile Devices: “Given a scenario, configure
mobile device features including NFC and location services for apps that interact with external
devices or services.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Mobile Device Features and
Proximity-Based Services.
Question: 452
Which of the following protocols is used for sending emails?
- POP3
- IMAP
- LDAP
- SMTP
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:
SMTP is the standard protocol used to send emails from a client to a mail server or between servers.
POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) and IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) are used for receiving
emails, not sending them.
LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is used for accessing and managing directory services,
such as authentication and organizational information, not for email transport.
Reference:
Questions and Answers PDF 407/419
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, configure email
clients and protocols including SMTP, POP3, and IMAP.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Networking Protocols and
Email Services.
Question: 453
Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization?
- Better compatibility
- Reduced network latency
- Secure telnet access
- Metered utilization
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Better compatibility.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Software Troubleshooting and
Virtualization:
Application virtualization allows applications to run in an isolated environment on a client device
without being installed directly on the operating system.
This improves compatibility, as applications can operate regardless of OS differences, avoiding
conflicts with other installed applications or system configurations.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Reduced network latency: Application virtualization does not inherently reduce network latency;
network performance depends on connectivity.
C . Secure telnet access: Telnet is unrelated to application virtualization.
D . Metered utilization: Metering refers to cloud service usage or billing, not a benefit of application
virtualization itself.
Reference:
Questions and Answers PDF 408/419
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Software Troubleshooting: “Given a scenario,
troubleshoot and apply virtualization concepts including application virtualization for compatibility
and isolation.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Virtualization and
Application Deployment.
Question: 454
A shared printer frequently jams, especially when printing double-sided documents. The paper size is
standard office A4. The printer is used regularly throughout the day. Which of the following actions
should the technician take to address the paper jamming issue?
- Clean the feed rollers
- Use a different paper weight
- Replace the fuser unit
- Change the toner cartridge
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Clean the feed rollers.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Printers:
Frequent paper jams, particularly in high-use shared printers, are commonly caused by dirty or worn
feed rollers.
Cleaning the feed rollers removes dust, paper debris, and toner residue that can prevent smooth
paper feeding, especially when printing double-sided documents.
This is a standard preventive maintenance procedure that improves reliability and extends the
printer’s operational life.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Use a different paper weight: A4 standard paper is appropriate; changing paper weight is
unnecessary unless the paper is damaged or incompatible.
C . Replace the fuser unit: Fuser problems generally cause smudging or incomplete fusing, not
Questions and Answers PDF 409/419
frequent paper jams.
D . Change the toner cartridge: Toner issues affect print quality (light or streaky prints), not paper
feeding or jamming.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Printers: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot common
printer problems including paper jams, feed issues, and maintenance tasks.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Printer Troubleshooting and
Maintenance.
Question: 455
A technician needs to replace a laptop’s display assembly. Which of the following should the
technician do to complete this task?
- Reattach the heat sinks
- Reconnect the wireless antennas
- Install a new CPU fan
- Reset the BIOS to default settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Reconnect the wireless antennas.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Laptop Maintenance:
Many laptop wireless antennas are routed through the display assembly to provide optimal Wi-Fi
and Bluetooth signal strength.
When replacing a laptop display, it is essential to disconnect and then reconnect the wireless
antennas to ensure proper connectivity.
Failing to reconnect these antennas can result in weak or no wireless signal.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Reattach the heat sinks: Heat sinks are part of the CPU/GPU cooling assembly and are unrelated
Questions and Answers PDF 410/419
to replacing the display.
C . Install a new CPU fan: CPU fans are part of the cooling system, not the display assembly.
D . Reset the BIOS to default settings: Not required for physically replacing the display; the BIOS
retains settings independently of display hardware.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, replace laptop
components including displays and ensure connectivity of integrated devices such as antennas.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Laptop Maintenance and
Component Replacement.
Question: 456
Employees report that a shared laser printer has difficulty printing on thick paper. A technician
verifies that the printer works as expected on standard paper, but output on thick paper is easily
smudged when touched. Which of the following should the technician do first?
- Install a maintenance kit
- Change the fuser temperature
- Clean the transfer roller
- Install an OEM toner cartridge
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Change the fuser temperature.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Printers:
A laser printer fuses toner onto paper using heat and pressure. Thicker paper often requires a higher
fuser temperature to properly adhere the toner.
If the output smudges on thick paper but prints fine on standard paper, adjusting the fuser
temperature is the first step before performing more invasive maintenance or replacing parts.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Questions and Answers PDF 411/419
A . Install a maintenance kit: Typically includes rollers, belts, and other parts; this is not the first
action if the issue is temperature-related.
C . Clean the transfer roller: Cleaning may improve print quality, but smudging on thick paper usually
relates to insufficient fusing heat.
D . Install an OEM toner cartridge: The issue is unlikely to be caused by non-OEM toner if standard
paper prints correctly.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Printers: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot printing
problems including smudging, paper jams, and fuser issues.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Printer Troubleshooting and
Maintenance.
Question: 457
A technician needs to replace the connector on a data cable that uses two pairs of wires. Which of
the following connectors should the technician use?
- RJ11
- F-type
- ST
- Molex
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. RJ11.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:
RJ11 connectors are commonly used for telephone lines and data cables that use two pairs of wires
(four wires total).
This connector is standard for analog telephone connections and DSL connections.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Questions and Answers PDF 412/419
B . F-type: Used for coaxial cables, commonly in cable TV or broadband internet, not for two-pair
data cables.
C . ST: A type of fiber optic connector, not used for copper two-pair wiring.
D . Molex: Primarily used for power connections in computer hardware, not for network or phone
cabling.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, install and
configure cables and connectors including RJ11, RJ45, coaxial, and fiber.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Networking Cables and
Connectors.
Question: 458
An administrator for a wireless network is planning the company’s floor plan using a heat map.
Which of the following types of networks is the administrator configuring?
- SAN
- PAN
- MAN
- WLAN
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network).
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:
A WLAN is a wireless network that covers a limited area such as an office, building, or campus.
Using a heat map helps administrators determine optimal placement of access points, identify areas
of weak signal, and plan coverage for employees’ devices.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . SAN (Storage Area Network): Connects storage devices over a network; not used for wireless
Questions and Answers PDF 413/419
coverage.
B . PAN (Personal Area Network): Covers a very small area, such as a single person’s devices
(Bluetooth, USB, etc.), not a whole office.
C . MAN (Metropolitan Area Network): Covers a city or large geographic area; too large for a floor
plan.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, configure wireless
networks including site surveys, heat maps, and access point placement.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Wireless Networking.
Question: 459
Which of the following describes an advantage of mini-LED displays over OLED displays?
- Increased contrast
- No backlight
- Improved viewing angle
- Decreased burn-in
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Decreased burn-in.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Display Technologies:
Mini-LED displays use an array of tiny LEDs as a backlight for LCD panels.
Unlike OLED displays, which are susceptible to burn-in (permanent image retention when static
content is displayed for long periods), mini-LEDs reduce the risk because the pixels themselves do
not emit light individually and are less prone to permanent image retention.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Increased contrast: OLED typically provides better contrast because it can turn off individual pixels
completely.
Questions and Answers PDF 414/419
B . No backlight: Mini-LEDs still use a backlight, whereas OLEDs do not.
C . Improved viewing angle: OLEDs generally offer wider viewing angles than mini-LED LCDs.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, select display types
and technologies considering resolution, contrast, burn-in risk, and backlighting.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Display Technologies.
Question: 460
Which of the following is used to verify if a NIC port can send and receive data?
- Loopback plug
- Toner probe
- Cable tester
- Network tap
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Loopback plug.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:
A loopback plug is used to test a network interface card (NIC) port by sending a signal out of the port
and back into the same port, verifying that the NIC can send and receive data properly.
This is a common diagnostic tool when troubleshooting network connectivity issues on individual
devices.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B . Toner probe: Used for tracing and locating cables, not for testing NIC ports.
C . Cable tester: Checks the integrity of network cables but does not verify NIC send/receive
functionality.
D . Network tap: Passively monitors network traffic but does not test the NIC port itself.
Questions and Answers PDF 415/419
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Networking: “Given a scenario, use tools such as
loopback plugs and cable testers to verify network connectivity.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Network Troubleshooting
Tools.
Question: 461
A user is trying to present a video in a conference room. The video appears when the user connects
the computer to the TV display with an HDMI cable. However, there is no sound coming through. The
computer and TV volumes are at 50%. Which of the following should the user perform next?
- Adjust the volume settings
- Swap the HDMI cable
- Reinsert the HDMI cable
- Verify the audio output assignment
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Verify the audio output assignment.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Troubleshooting:
HDMI carries both video and audio signals. If video displays correctly but audio is not heard, it is
often because the computer is still outputting sound to its internal speakers rather than the HDMIconnected device.
The user should check the audio output settings in the operating system and ensure the HDMI device
(TV or projector) is selected as the audio output device.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Adjust the volume settings: Volumes are already at 50%, so adjusting them will not solve the
problem if the audio output is assigned incorrectly.
B . Swap the HDMI cable: The video is working fine, so the cable is likely functional.
C . Reinsert the HDMI cable: Unlikely to resolve audio assignment issues if the connection is already
Questions and Answers PDF 416/419
working for video.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Hardware: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot video
and audio issues including external display and HDMI audio output.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Video and Audio
Troubleshooting.
Question: 462
A user reports that a network printer has frequent paper jams. The technician examines the printer
and finds no obvious obstructions or foreign objects in the paper path. Which of the following should
the technician do to resolve the issue?
- Check for firmware updates specific to the printer model
- Inspect and replace the printer rollers
- Reseat the fuser assembly
- Clean the printer’s corona wire
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Inspect and replace the printer rollers.
According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Printers:
Frequent paper jams with no visible obstruction are often caused by worn or dirty feed rollers, which
fail to grip and feed paper properly.
Inspecting and replacing the rollers ensures smooth paper feeding and prevents repeated jams,
particularly in high-use network printers.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A . Check for firmware updates: Firmware updates address software or functionality issues, not
mechanical paper feeding problems.
C . Reseat the fuser assembly: Fuser issues typically cause smudging or incomplete toner adhesion,
not paper jams.
D . Clean the corona wire: The corona wire affects toner adhesion and print quality, not paper
feeding.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Exam Objectives – Printers: “Given a scenario, troubleshoot printer
problems including paper jams, feed issues, and maintenance tasks.”
Mike Meyers’ CompTIA A+ Certification Guide, 13th Edition, Chapter on Printer Troubleshooting and Maintenance.